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1. Pregnancy is typically a(n):
A) incredibly exciting and frightening time.
B) time of unusual inner calm.
C) time of intense anger.
D) time of pure happiness.
2. The ________ is/are NOT part of the female reproductive system.
A) fallopian tube
B) uterus
C) vesicles
D) ovary
3. The cervix:
A) expands dramatically to allow the baby to emerge during birth.
B) is a major source of sexual pleasure.
C) allows the ovum to pass into the uterus.
D) is right under the fallopian tube.
4. Sperm is to ovum as testes is to:
A) fallopian tube.
B) ovary.
C) uterus.
D) cervix.
5. Cecilia asks, “Are new ova and sperm continually produced?” You reply:
A) “Yes. Sperm and ova are replenished continuously.”
B) “Yes and no. Sperm are formed continually; all ova are present early in life.”
C) “Yes and no. Ova are formed continually; all sperm are present early in life.”
D) “No. All sperm and ova are formed early in life.”
6. A friend asks, “To get pregnant, when is the best time to have intercourse?” Your
answer:
A) “right around the time of ovulation.”
B) “a week before ovulation.”
C) “just before menstruation.”
D) “There is no ideal time.”
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7. Fertilization occurs when:
A) sperm are ejaculated during sexual intercourse.
B) sperm enter the uterus.
C) the ovum leaves the ovary.
D) a sperm penetrates the nucleus of the ovum, and the two meld into one cell.
8. Phillipe asks, “How many chromosomes are in an ovum (or sperm)”? Your answer:
A) 23.
B) 92.
C) 46.
D) 11.5.
9. Genes:
A) function as templates for producing our body’s proteins.
B) produce our body’s chromosomes.
C) produce our DNA.
D) produce mainly waste material.
10. Jack and Diane desperately want a son. When they read up on the overall odds of
male/female conception, what would they find?
A) It’s a coin toss; there is a fifty-fifty chance of producing a male.
B) Because the Y chromosomes carrying sperm are lighter and faster, the odds favor
having a male.
C) Because the X carrying sperm are larger, the odds favor having a girl.
D) Even though more males are conceived, the odds favor having a girl.
11. Roughly ________ more males are conceived and roughly ________ more male babies
are born.
A) 50 percent; 20 percent
B) 30 percent; 10 percent
C) 20 percent; 5 percent
D) 1 percent; 0 percent
12. Choose the correct sequence of events during the germinal stage.
A) fertilization, blastocyst, implantation
B) blastocyst, fertilization, implantation
C) implantation, fertilization, blastocyst
D) fertilization, implantation, blastocyst
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13. Link the correct terms to the following descriptions in order: union of sperm and egg;
fertilized ovum; structure that implants in the uterine wall.
A) zygote, fertilization, blastocyst
B) fertilization, zygote, blastocyst
C) blastocyst, zygote, fertilization
D) zygote, blastocyst, fertilization
14. Pick the correct sequence.
A) ovulation, fertilization, zygote, blastocyst, implantation
B) fertilization, ovulation, blastocyst, implantation, zygote
C) zygote, ovulation, fertilization, implantation, blastocyst
D) fertilization, ovulation, blastocyst, implantation
15. Which event does NOT take place during the germinal stage?
A) The zygote rapidly divides as it travels down the fallopian tube.
B) The blastocyst begins to embeds itself into the uterine wall.
C) The cell mass enters the uterus, a few days after fertilization.
D) The baby’s body structures start to form.
16. Carlos asks Clarisa, “What is the main function of the placenta?” Clarisa should answer:
A) “to remove waste from the mother.”
B) “to provide nutrients to the fetus.”
C) “to keep the fetus from sliding out of the uterus.”
D) “to support the pregnant woman’s health.”
17. If you are describing the rate of development during the embryonic stage, choose the
best phrase.
A) fast-paced
B) slow-paced
C) medium-paced
D) sometimes slow- and sometimes fast-paced
18. The earliest structure to form during the embryonic stage is the:
A) heart.
B) hands.
C) legs.
D) fingers.
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19. During the embryonic stage, the:
A) major body organs are formed.
B) digestive system alone is formed.
C) circulatory system alone is formed.
D) brain alone is formed.
20. Edgar asks you, “What happens during the embryonic period”? You should answer:
A) “The neural tube is formed.”
B) “The arms and legs are formed.”
C) “The circulatory system is formed.”
D) “The neural tube, the arms and legs, and the circulatory system are formed—and
every major body structure, too!”
21. “This structure will ultimately become the brain and spinal cord.” I am referring to the:
A) neural tube.
B) frontal lobe.
C) plural tube.
D) cepalocaudal tube.
22. Jimmy asks Joanna, “When do the vast majority of our neurons form?” Joanna should
answer:
A) “in the womb (that is, well before birth)”
B) “during the first year of life”
C) “during childhood”
D) It’s a trick question—neurons steadily form throughout life.
23. Link each statement to the correct principle of prenatal development: “The arms form
before the hands”; “The head forms before the feet.”
A) proximodistal; cephalocaudal
B) cephalocaudal; proximodistal
C) mass to specific; cephalocaudal
D) cephalocaudal; mass to specific
24. Match each prenatal stage to the appropriate description: first 2 weeks after fertilization;
all major body organs form; final stage last roughly 7 months.
A) embryonic; germinal; fetal
B) fetal; germinal; embryonic
C) germinal; embryonic; fetal
D) germinal; fetal; embryonic
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25. Match each process to the appropriate prenatal stage: brain development; implantation;
neural tube forms.
A) fetal stage; germinal stage; embryonic stage
B) embryonic stage; germinal stage; fetal stage
C) fetal stage; fetal stage; embryonic stage
D) embryonic stage; fetal stage; fetal stage
26. Our basic body structures form during the:
A) germinal phase.
B) embryonic stage.
C) fetal stage.
D) throughout prenatal development.
27. Choose the correct sequence of events in prenatal brain development.
A) neural tube forms; brain cells migrate upward; cells lengthen and form branches
B) brain cells migrate upward; neural tube forms; cells lengthen and form branches
C) cells lengthen and form branches; neural tube forms; brain cells migrate upward
D) brain cells migrate upward; cells lengthen and form branches; neural tube forms
28. What organ develops gradually over the fetal stage?
A) the heart
B) the brain
C) the arms
D) the liver
29. When do we first begin to be able to hear and see?
A) during the embryonic stage
B) during the later fetal stage (around month 6 or 7)
C) at birth
D) after birth
30. If Martha goes into labor and gives birth during her twenty-fifth week of pregnancy, you
can predict:
A) the baby will probably not survive.
B) the baby has more than a fifty-fifty chance of surviving (with excellent medical
care).
C) the baby is almost certain to survive.
D) You can’t make any predictions at all.
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31. A friend has just given birth in the twentieth week of pregnancy. What might you be
thinking?
A) The baby has about a fifty-fifty chance of surviving, with good medical care.
B) The baby cannot survive.
C) The baby will almost surely survive.
D) The baby will initially survive, but almost certainly die a few weeks after birth.
32. Who is experiencing couvade?
A) Rhonda, who is in the second trimester, and feels better than ever
B) Orma, who is having nightmares about her pregnant daughter
C) Renaldo, whose wife is in the first trimester, and gets nauseous in the morning
D) Stella, who wants to become pregnant, and so wears a special charm
33. You are an evolutionary psychologist. To explain morning sickness, what statement
might you make?
A) “Morning sickness evolved to protect the embryo from poisonous foods.”
B) “Morning sickness is all in the mind. Women who expect to get sick, do.”
C) “A woman who has morning sickness is unconsciously rejecting her fetus.”
D) “Women who have morning sickness are at high risk for miscarrying.”
34. Pick which symptom is NOT classic during the first trimester.
A) morning sickness
B) highest chance of miscarriage
C) looking clearly pregnant—and needing maternity clothes
D) feeling tired (and faint)
35. Link each symptom and emotion to the correct trimester: Women may feel incredibly
tired, and experience morning sickness; Women often feel much better physically and
become intensely bonded to the child.
A) first; second
B) second; first
C) second; third
D) third; first
36. Generalizing from the pregnancy discussion women are MOST apt to feel physically “at
their best” during ________.
A) the first trimester
B) the second trimester
C) the third trimester
D) right before labor begins
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37. Quickening refers to the first:
A) time the mother feels the baby’s heartbeat.
B) time the mother feels the baby move.
C) time the baby moves.
D) signs of labor.
38. Mom becomes intensely bonded to the child. According to the text, this feeling is
MOST likely to occur after what event?
A) fertilization
B) quickening
C) labor
D) morning sickness
39. A pregnant friend thinks, I can’t wait for this baby to be born! This feeling is apt to be
MOST intense during the:
A) first trimester.
B) second trimester.
C) third trimester.
D) embryonic phase.
40. As a nurse practitioner, to predict the emotional experience of a pregnant patient, you
might ask all of the following questions EXCEPT:
A) “Do you have serious money worries?”
B) “Do you have a caring, loving support system?”
C) “Are you married?”
D) “Do you feel loved by your mate?”
41. Carla just learned she is pregnant. What force should BEST predict having a joyous
9-month experience?
A) not gaining too much weight
B) feeling supported and loved
C) being married
D) quitting work
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42. Cami is living in poverty and just found out she is pregnant. According to the research,
she:
A) is sure to have an unhappy pregnancy experience.
B) can have a joyous pregnancy experience if she feels supported and loved.
C) can have a joyous pregnancy experience but only if she is married.
D) can have a joyous pregnancy experience but only if she gets on food stamps.
43. Dads-to-be:
A) are often intensely emotionally bonded to the fetus.
B) may wonder if they can handle this demanding role.
C) can feel that their emotions are marginalized. “All people think about is my wife!”
D) experience all of these feelings.
44. What is the text’s main message with regard to “pregnant dads”?
A) We need to focus more on the mom’s experience, not the father’s.
B) We need to focus more on the dad’s experience, as pregnancy is a critical life event
for men, too.
C) We need to focus on making sure that men are working.
D) We need to stop paying so much attention to men.
45. Joe is expecting his first child. Which of the following statements is MOST accurate?
A) Joe will talk frequently with friends about his worries relating to fatherhood.
B) Joe will fight more with his wife.
C) Joe will find this an incredibly meaningful experience, but will not get the social
support that his wife does.
D) Joe will probably be very depressed.
46. A teratogen:
A) is a gene that causes a birth defect.
B) develops during the third trimester of pregnancy.
C) enters the ovum with the sperm.
D) is a poisonous substance that crosses the placenta, harming the fetus.
47. The toxic effect of a teratogen is MOST likely to occur during the ________ of
development; that is, when a specific system or organ is forming most rapidly.
A) early stage
B) sensitive period
C) consolidation
D) germinal stage
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48. Flora’s baby was born with a serious heart defect, which the doctor tied to a teratogen
she was exposed to during pregnancy. When was this exposure MOST likely to occur?
A) during the first trimester
B) during the second trimester
C) during the third trimester
D) during the germinal period
49. If Monica’s baby was exposed to a teratogen during the embryonic period, the major
problem might be ________; while if she drank heavily throughout her pregnancy, the
problem is apt to be ________.
A) malformation of a major body structure; a developmental disorder
B) a developmental disorder; malformation of a major body structure
C) a developmental disorder; a developmental disorder
D) a malformation of a basic body structure; a malformation of a basic body structure
50. An obstetrician is giving a talk about teratogens. Choose the statement this doctor is
MOST likely to make.
A) “Damage from a given teratogen is most likely during the third trimester.”
B) “Damage from a given teratogen is identical for every woman.”
C) “Damage from a given teratogen is most likely at high levels of exposure.”
D) “Damage from a given teratogen always shows up soon after birth.”
51. This substance taken during pregnancy tends to produce a smaller baby.
A) folic acid
B) vitamin K
C) aspirin
D) nicotine
52. You hear encouraging statistics about the fraction of women who give up smoking
while they are pregnant. You can assume these figures are apt to:
A) be accurate—as why would these women lie?
B) be a bit misleading (or too optimistic)—as some of these women will probably
falsely reported they quit
C) be completely false—as few women cut down or give up smoking while pregnant.
D) There’s no data that allows us to answer this question.
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53. Latisha, pregnant, but totally addicted to nicotine, asks you to convince her that smoking
will harm the baby. What should you say?
A) “You risk having a less healthy baby, because nicotine impairs the flow of nutrients
to your child.”
B) “You risk having an obese child.”
C) “You risk giving birth to a smaller than normal baby.”
D) All of these are things you should say.
54. You are writing a paper on the effects of prenatal drinking on the baby. You should
make all of the following comments EXCEPT:
A) “The exposed baby may have learning and memory problems.”
B) “The exposed baby may be very small and have facial abnormalities.”
C) “The exposed baby may be born without arms or legs.”
D) “The exposed baby may have mental health problems (that is, trouble regulating
his behavior).”
55. If a woman smokes during pregnancy and has a baby with learning problems:
A) you cannot assume it was smoking that caused these problems as she might be
putting her baby’s health at risk in other ways.
B) you know for sure smoking caused these problems.
C) you can easily perform an experiment to test if smoking was the cause.
D) A correlational study will give you answers as to whether smoking was the cause.
56. Fetal programming research explores the impact of:
A) drinking and smoking on the fetus’ later development.
B) disasters (and severe life stress) on the fetus’ later development.
C) genetics on the fetus’ later development.
D) playing classical music on the fetus’ later development.
57. According to fetal programming research, if a mom experiences severe poverty while
pregnant, the impact on the baby ________.
A) is confined to early childhood
B) can be lifelong
C) occurs mainly during adolescence
D) shows up only in old age
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58. Imagine that a tornado rips through your neighborhood and your pregnant friend
witnesses the destruction of her house. According to fetal programming research, all
might be a risk EXCEPT:
A) Her child might be born “small.”
B) Her child might be prone to eat excessively (and become obese).
C) Her child might be susceptible to getting heart disease.
D) Her child might be prone to be very tall.
59. The bottom line message of fetal programming research is that intense stress in the
womb:
A) can impair life-long health.
B) sets babies up to be very thin throughout adult life.
C) mainly affects babies at birth.
D) has little impact on later development.
60. A child with Down syndrome has all of the following attributes EXCEPT:
A) an extra chromosome (or piece) on pair 21.
B) little chance of living past age 18.
C) mild to moderate mental impairment.
D) a stocky appearance and flat facial features.
61. All are true of Down syndrome EXCEPT:
A) the risk of giving birth to this child is highest among women over 40.
B) these children have a shortened life expectancy.
C) these children are almost always severely mentally impaired.
D) these children can have happy, fulfilling lives.
62. A social worker who counsels Down syndrome teens asks what will happen to her
clients in their forties and fifties. What should you say?
A) “Unfortunately, almost all of your clients will be dead by this age.”
B) “Unfortunately, your clients will be at very high risk of getting Alzheimer’s
disease.”
C) “Fortunately, your clients will be aging very well.”
D) “Fortunately, your clients will improve dramatically in their cognitive abilities.”
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63. A single gene disorder that shows up when a baby has one copy of an abnormal gene is
called:
A) trisomy.
B) recessive.
C) dominant.
D) sex-linked.
64. Bonnie and Clyde just found out they both carry the recessive gene for sickle cell
anemia. Maria and Manuel are first time parents in their forties. Who should be MOST
worried about having a baby with a genetic or chromosomal problem?
A) Bonnie and Clyde
B) Maria and Manuel
C) Both couples are at equally high risk.
D) Both couples are at equally low risk.
65. A sex-linked single-gene disorder is usually transmitted from:
A) father to son.
B) mother to daughter.
C) mother to son.
D) father to daughter.
66. Your friend has a child with cystic fibrosis and has just gotten pregnant again. What
should you be thinking about her odds of having a second CF child?
A) I’m very worried—she has a 1 in 4 chance.
B) I’m unbelievably worried—she has a fifty-fifty chance.
C) I’m not concerned—she already has one child with the disorder, so the risk is low.
D) I don’t know whether to be worried—as there is no way of assessing her odds.
67. Why is Huntington’s disease—that fatal dominant single-gene disorder—still in the
population?
A) because this illness strikes in adulthood, after people have children
B) because this illness cannot be detected through genetic testing
C) because this illness occurs in groups that forbid contraception
D) because this illness enhances fertility
68. ________ is a recessive single-gene disease; while ________ is a sex-linked disorder.
A) Hemophilia; cystic fibrosis
B) Sickle cell anemia; hemophilia
C) Hemophilia; sickle cell anemia
D) Huntington’s disease; hemophilia
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69. Which serious single-gene disease tends to strike (or first show its symptoms) during
adulthood?
A) sickle cell anemia
B) hemophilia
C) Huntington’s disease
D) Tay Sachs disease
70. Gerard is a genetic counselor. Which statement should he make to a couple who has a
child with cystic fibrosis and is considering another pregnancy?
A) The odds of your next child having the disease are 1 in 4.
B) The odds of your next child having the disease are 1 in 2.
C) With your family history, you should definitely terminate this pregnancy.
D) Don’t worry about your odds. Today cystic fibrosis is easily controlled with
medication.
71. Mary is excitedly going for an ultrasound. She may be able to do all of the following
EXCEPT:
A) clearly see the baby’s face.
B) know if the baby has some clear-cut physical abnormality.
C) find out who the baby’s father is.
D) find out how big the fetus is.
72. CVS is performed ________, while amniocentesis is performed ________.
A) during the first trimester; during the second trimester
B) before conception; during the second trimester
C) during the second trimester; during the first trimester
D) during the third trimester; after birth
73. You are a doctor and your patient tells you she is pregnant. Under which situation would
you MOST strongly urge chorionic villus sampling (CVS)?
A) The woman previously had a baby with Tay Sachs disease.
B) The woman is 40 years old.
C) The woman has no risk factors for problems, but wants to ensure her child is born
healthy.
D) The woman has a bleeding disorder.
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74. For the following items label the relevant prenatal test: “Poses more risk to the fetus;”
“Woman must go through a full labor to terminate the pregnancy.”
A) amniocentesis; CVS
B) CVS; amniocentesis
C) ultrasound; amniocentesis
D) amniocentesis; ultrasound
75. Which prenatal test samples the fluid that surrounds the fetus?
A) ultrasound
B) amniocentesis
C) chorionic villus sampling
D) measurement of gestational age
76. If Moriah and her husband Mark are coping with fertility issues, how are they MOST
likely to feel?
A) anxious, depressed, and jealous of people with babies
B) closer to each other than before
C) resigned to not having a biological child
D) committed to exploring adoption
77. Pick the woman who is at the highest risk of having problems getting pregnant.
A) Martha, who is 42
B) Moriah, who is living in poverty
C) Mellisa, who never married the child’s father
D) Moriah, who lives in the developing world
78. If Moriah and her husband Mark are having fertility problems, who is biologically
MOST “responsible” (statistically speaking)?
A) The odds are it’s Mark.
B) The odds are it’s Moriah.
C) It could be either Mark or Moriah equally.
D) The odds are it’s the doctor.
79. Which couple with enduring fertility problems is MOST likely to use assisted
reproductive technology?
A) Horton and Maisie, who live on a ranch in rural Montana
B) Tony and Angela, who have minimum-wage jobs
C) Marcellus and Chandra, who have plenty of money and live in Chicago
D) Kent and Linda, who are committed to working long hours to build their business
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80. All of the following are unique to assisted reproductive technologies EXCEPT:
A) in-vitro fertilization.
B) using a donor egg.
C) being a surrogate mom.
D) taking fertility drugs.
81. Which woman will only be able to conceive using in-vitro fertilization?
A) Latasha, who is having trouble ovulating
B) Karen, whose fallopian tubes are permanently blocked (or missing)
C) Jane, who is having trouble carrying a child to term
D) Ruth, who is over age 40
82. If a friend is considering in-vitro fertilization, you can give her all of the following
cautions EXCEPT:
A) The treatments are very, very expensive.
B) The treatments demand an huge time commitment.
C) The treatments practically never work.
D) The treatments are emotionally draining.
83. With regard to birth, “efface” means to:
A) open up.
B) thin out.
C) see the top of the baby’s
