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CHAPTER 2 — ATOMS
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. The name of which Greek philosopher is most closely associated with the concept of an atom?
A. Aristotle
B. Democritus
C. Plato
D. Zeno
2. Which Greek philosopher thought that matter was infinitely divisible?
A. Aristotle
B. Democritus
C. Plato
D. Zeno
3. The word atom is derived from a word in which language?
A. Arabic
B. Greek
C. Hebrew
D. Latin
4. Which of the following best compares Democritus’ view of matter and our current view?
A. both views are based on belief only
B. both views are based on firm experimental evidence
C. the ancient view was based on thought only, but our view is based on experimental evidence
D. both views were based on a combination of thought and experimental evidence
5. The symbols for the elements in the period table are derived from three languages. Which of the following is
not one of those languages?
A. English
B. French
C. German
D. Latin
6. Which of the following elements is named for a continent?
A. As
B. Au
C. Eu
D. all of them
7. Which of the following elements is named for a country?
A. Fr
B. Ge
C. Po
D. all of them
8. Which of the following elements is named for a city?
A. B
B. Be
C. Bi
D. Bk
9. Which of the following elements is named for a person?
A. Er
B. Fr
C. Os
D. Sg
10. Which of the following elements is named for a planet?
A. As
B. Er
C. Pu
D. V
11. Which of the following is not a proper symbol for an element?
A. C
B. Ca
C. CO
D. Co
12. Which of the following statements describe a compound?
A. A compound is a pure substance.
B. A compound obeys the Law of Definite Composition.
C. both a and b
D. neither a nor b
13. Which of the following statements describe a mixture?
A. A mixture does not obey the Law of Definite Composition.
B. Chemical techniques are required to separate the components of a mixture.
C. both a and b
D. neither a nor b
14. When a particular solid sample is examined under a microscope it is observed that there are regions which
are black and regions which are yellow. What type of material is this sample?
A. a compound
B. an element
C. a homogeneous mixture
D. a heterogeneous mixture
15. Alloys such as bronze, brass or steel are examples of which of the following?
A. compounds
B. elements
C. homogeneous mixtures
D. heterogeneous mixtures
16. When a strong magnet is brought near to a sample which is known to contain both iron and sulfur the iron
and the sulfur are separated from one another. What type of material is this sample?
A. a compound
B. a homogeneous mixture
C. a heterogeneous mixture
D. there is insufficient information to answer
17. When a strong magnet is brought near to a sample which is known to contain both iron and sulfur the iron
and the sulfur are not separated from one another. What type of material is this sample?
A. a compound
B. a homogeneous mixture
C. a heterogeneous mixture
D. there is insufficient information to answer
18. Sodium is a highly reactive metal and chlorine is a toxic gas, but when they come together the resulting
material, sodium chloride, is essential for life. Which of the following is true when sodium and chlorine are
brought into contact with one another?
A. they form a heterogeneous mixture
B. they form a homogenous mixture
C. they neutralize each other
D. they form a compound
19. Aluminum and fluorine form a compound in which the aluminum to fluorine ratio is 1:3. What is the
correct formula for this compound?
A. AF3
B. AlFl3
C. AlF3
D. Al(F2)3
20. Sodium chlorate, an ingredient in many common herbicides, has sodium, chlorine and oxygen atoms in the
ratio 1:1:3. What is the correct formula for sodium chlorate?
A. NaCO3
B. SoClO3
C. NaClO3
D. none of these
21. Ammonium nitrate is a component of both fertilizers and explosives. Ammonium nitrate has nitrogen,
hydrogen and oxygen atoms in the ratio 2:4:3. What is the correct formula for ammonium nitrate?
A. N4H8O6
B. N2H4O3
C. N1H2O1.5
D. all of these
22. Sodium bicarbonate has sodium, hydrogen, carbon and oxygen atoms in the ratio 1:1:1:3. What is the
correct formula for sodium bicarbonate?
A. NaBiCO3
B. NaHCO3
C. SoHCO3
D. none of these
23. Which of the following techniques would be most effective in separating the components of salt water?
A. decantation
B. evaporation
C. filtration
D. none of these
24. Which of the following could be used to separate the components of a mixture of alcohol and water?
A. decantation
B. distillation
C. filtration
D. none of these
25. Which of the following enable us characterize a compound by a specific chemical formula?
A. The Law of Conservation of Energy
B. The Law of Conservation of Mass
C. The Law of Definite Composition
D. all of the above
26. Which of the following statements, all of which were part of Dalton’s atomic theory, was later shown to be
false?
A. All matter is made up of very tiny indivisible particles called atoms.
B. All atoms of the same element have the same chemical properties.
C. Compounds are formed by the chemical combination of two or more elements.
D. A molecule is a tightly bound combination of two or more atoms that acts as a single unit.
27. One of the postulates of Dalton’s theory was incorrect. Which of the following best describes the effect of
the incorrect postulate?
A. Since one postulate was incorrect the theory must be discarded.
B. The theory can still be used because the erroneous postulate does not have any effect on the physical
properties of the elements.
C. The theory can still be used because the erroneous postulate does not have any effect on the chemical
properties of the elements.
D. The theory can still be used because the erroneous postulate does not have any effect on either the chemical
or physical properties of the elements.
28. Although atoms are the smallest unit of an element, relatively few elements can be found in nature as
individual atoms. Which of the following elements can be found as individual atoms?
A. hydrogen
B. iron
C. krypton
D. sulfur
29. A number of elements occur naturally as diatomic molecules. Which of the following does not occur
naturally as a diatomic molecule?
A. chlorine
B. hydrogen
C. nitrogen
D. sulfur
30. How many elements occur naturally as diatomic molecules?
A. 0
B. 5
C. 6
D. 72.31
31. Which element is present in the largest amount (by mass) in the human body?
A. carbon
B. hydrogen
C. nitrogen
D. oxygen
32. Which element is present in the largest amount (by number of atoms) in the human body?
A. carbon
B. hydrogen
C. nitrogen
D. oxygen
33. Which element accounts for nearly half the mass of the earth’s crust?
A. carbon
B. iron
C. oxygen
D. silicon
34. Which subatomic particles are found in the nucleus?
A. electrons
B. neutrons
C. protons
D. protons and neutrons
35. Which of the following correctly describes a proton?
A. on the scale of subatomic particles it is massive and has a +1 charge
B. on the scale of subatomic particles it is massive and has a -1 charge
C. on the scale of subatomic particles it is light and has a +1 charge
D. on the scale of subatomic particles it is light and has a -1 charge
36. Which of the following correctly describes an electron?
A. on the scale of subatomic particles it is massive and has a +1 charge
B. on the scale of subatomic particles it is massive and has a -1 charge
C. on the scale of subatomic particles it is light and has a +1 charge
D. on the scale of subatomic particles it is light and has a -1 charge
37. The neutron got its name because which of the following is true?
A. it neutralizes protons
B. it neutralizes electrons
C. it does not have an electrical charge
D. it has no effect on any atomic properties
38. The mass of a proton is approximately which of the following?
A. 12 g
B. 1 g
C. 12 amu
D. 1 amu
39. The mass of a neutron is approximately which of the following?
A. 12 g
B. 1 g
C. 12 amu
D. 1 amu
40. The mass of an electron is approximately which of the following?
A. 1 amu
B. 1 g
C. 0.0005 amu
D. 0.0005 g
41. Which element is currently used to define the atomic mass unit?
A. hydrogen
B. carbon
C. oxygen
D. none of these
42. The mass number of an atom is equal to which of the following?
A. the number of protons in the atom
B. the number of neutrons in the atom
C. the total number of protons and neutrons in the atom
D. the total number of protons, neutrons and electrons in the atom
43. The atomic number of an atom is equal to which of the following?
A. the number of protons in the atom
B. the number of neutrons in the atom
C. the total number of protons and neutrons in the atom
D. the total number of protons, neutrons and electrons in the atom
44. What is the mass number of an atom which is made up of 38 protons, 52 neutrons and 38 electrons?
A. 38
B. 52
C. 90
D. 128
45. What is the mass number of an atom which is made up of 27 protons,33 neutrons and 27 electrons?
A. 87
B. 60
C. 33
D. 27
46. Which is true of isotopes of an element?
A. they have different numbers of electrons
B. they have different numbers of neutrons
C. they have different numbers of protons
D. they have different chemical properties
47. Cobalt-60 is a radioactive isotope sometimes used in the treatment of cancer. Which of the following
statements is true about an atom of cobalt-60?
A. it contains 60 neutrons
B. it contains 60 protons
C. it contains 33 neutrons
D. it contains 33 protons
48. Cobalt-60 is a radioactive isotope sometimes used in the treatment of cancer. Which of the following
statements is true about an atom of cobalt-60?
A. it contains 27 neutrons
B. it contains 27 protons
C. it contains 60 neutrons
D. it contains 60 protons
49. Strontium-90 is a radioactive isotope which is particularly hazardous. Which of the following statements is
true about an atom of strontium-90?
A. it contains 52 neutrons
B. it contains 52 protons
C. it contains 90 neutrons
D. it contains 90 protons
50. Strontium-90 is a radioactive isotope which is particularly hazardous. Which of the following statements is
true about an atom of strontium-90?
A. it contains 38 neutrons
B. it contains 38 protons
C. it contains 90 protons
D. it contains 90 protons
51. It is commonly assumed that the isotopic abundances of a particular element are independent of the source
of the element. If isotopic abundance does vary with location what is the consequence of that observation?
A. Nothing, the observation is totally unimportant.
B. The atomic weight determined for the element will depend on the source from which the element was
obtained.
C. The chemical behavior of the element will depend on the source from which the element was obtained.
D. The atomic weight and the chemical behavior of the element will depend on the source from which the
element was obtained.
52. Suppose a new element named questinium has two isotopes. These isotopes are Qu-297 (40.30%, 296.78
amu) and Qu-301 (59.70%, 300.88 amu). What is the atomic weight of questinium, reported to the correct
number of significant digits?
A. 299 amu
B. 299.0 amu
C. 299.2 amu
D. 299.23 amu
53. Which of the following contains two species which have the same mass number?
A. 14C, 14N
B. 12C, 13C
C. both a and b
D. neither a nor b
54. Which of the following contains two species which are a pair of isotopes?
A. 14C, 14N
B. 12C, 13C
C. both a and b
D. neither a nor b
55. Which of the following is true of the atomic weight of an element?
A. it is the weight of heaviest isotope
B. it is the weight lightest isotope
C. it is the weight of the most abundant isotope
D. it is an average obtained from the weights and abundances of the isotopes
56. Which of the following is true of a 1 gram sample of iron?
A. it contains a very, very small number of atoms, since each individual atom has a large mass
B. it contains a very huge number of atoms, each of which is fairly massive
C. it contains a very, very huge number of atoms, each of which has an extremely tiny mass
D. none of the above
57. If you could line up atoms of lead-208, approximately how many atoms would you need to line up in order
for them to form a line 1 inch long?
A. 82
B. 208
C. 8.2 x 107
D. 1.6 x 1012
58. If you could line up the nuclei of lead-208, approximately how many nuclei would you need to line up in
order for them to form a line 1 inch long?
A. 82
B. 208
C. 8.2 x 107
D. 1.6 x 1012
59. What are the horizontal rows of the periodic table called?
A. cycles
B. periods
C. families
D. none of these
60. What are the vertical columns of the periodic table called?
A. families
B. periods
C. either a or b
D. neither a nor b
61. What are the elements in the “A” columns of the period table called?
A. main group elements
B. inner transition elements
C. metalloids
D. transition elements
62. What are the elements in the “B” columns of the period table called?
A. main group elements
B. inner transition elements
C. metalloids
D. transition elements
63. Which column of the periodic table is commonly called the alkalis?
A. 1A
B. 2A
C. 7A
D. 8A
64. Which columns o the periodic table is commonly called the halogens?
A. 1A
B. 4A
C. 7A
D. 8A
65. Which of the following columns of the periodic table contains no metallic elements?
A. 4A
B. 5A
C. 6A
D. 7A
66. Which of the following columns of the periodic table contains only gaseous elements?
A. 5A
B. 6A
C. 7A
D. 8A
67. Which of the following contains only transition metals?
A. Ca, Cr, Fe, Ni,
B. V, W, Xe, Zr
C. Cr, Mo, Ni, Pt
D. none of these
68. Which of the following contains only metals?
A. Ag, As, Ba, Ca
B. Ag, Au, Pb, Rb
C. As, Ge, Si, Te
D. none of these
69. Which of the following contains only non-metals?
A. C, Si, Ge, Sn
B. P, As, Sb, Bi
C. F, Cl, Br, I
D. none of these
70. Which of the following is a metalloid?
A. S
B. Si
C. Sn
D. Sr
71. Which of the following sequences gives the correct order as we move from left to right across a row of the
period table?
A. metal, metalloid, nonmetal
B. metal, nonmetal, metalloid
C. nonmetal, metal, metalloid
D. nonmetal, metalloid, metal
72. Which of the following best describes the properties of the elements?
A. Chemical and physical properties vary in a systematic way as one moves across a row of the periodic table.
B. Chemical and physical properties vary in a systematic way as one moves down a column of the periodic
table.
C. both a and b
D. neither a nor b
73. The properties of ductility, malleability, ability to conduct heat and electricity are characteristics of what
type of material?
A. all elements
B. metallic elements
C. metalloid elements
D. nonmetallic elements
74. Which of the following products are formed when sodium reacts with water?
A. NaH + O2
B. NaO + H2
C. Na2O + H2
D. NaOH + H2
75. Which of the following products are formed when potassium reacts with water?
A. KH + O2
B. KO + H2
C. KOH + H2
D. K2O + H2
76. Group 8A of the periodic table was once known as the inert gases, but is now known as the noble
gases. Which of the following resulted in the change of name?
A. Once there were no known compounds of these elements, but now many compounds of all of the noble gases
are known.
B. Once there were no known compounds of these elements, but now a few compounds of some of the noble
gases are known.
C. These elements form no compounds and are extremely expensive.
D. The elements only react with noble metals such as gold and platinum.
77. When comparing the boiling points of the halogens with those of the noble gases which of the following is
true?
A. The boiling points decrease as the elements get heavier, and the boiling point of the halogen is higher than
that of the noble gas adjacent to it.
B. The boiling points decrease as the elements get heavier, and the boiling point of the halogen is lower than
that of the noble gas adjacent to it.
C. The boiling points increase as the elements get heavier, and the boiling point of the halogen is higher than
that of the noble gas adjacent to it.
D. The boiling points increase as the elements get heavier, and the boiling point of the halogen is lower than
that of the noble gas adjacent to it.
78. Which of the following is the reason that strontium-90 is considered an especially dangerous radioactive
isotope?
A. it has an exceptionally short half-life
B. it has an exceptionally intense radioactivity
C. it is chemically incorporated into bone and teeth and is therefore not readily eliminated from the body
D. all of the above
79. What is the name of the lowest possible energy state for an electron?
A. Bohr state
B. bottom state
C. ground state
D. none of the above
80. Which of the following sets of numbers could be used to designate the principal energy levels (shells) in an
atom?
A. -1, 0, 1, 2, 3
B. 0, 1, 2, 3, 4
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D. all of these
81. Which of the following is true of the number of subshells associated with a particular shell?
A. it depends on which atom is being considered
B. it depends on the particular shell being considered
C. it depends on both a and b
D. it depends on neither a nor b
82. How many electrons can be accommodated in the fourth shell of an atom?
A. 2
B. 8
C. 18
D. 32
83. How many orbitals are there in the 4p subshell?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
84. How many orbitals are there in the 3d subshell?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 8
85. How many electrons can be accommodated in the 4p subshell?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 18
86. How many electrons can be accommodated in the 3d subshell?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 10
D. 18
87. How many electrons can be accommodated in the 2d subshell?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 10
D. none, there is no 2d subshell
88. The orbitals of which of the following subshells have the least complicated shapes?
A. s
B. p
C. d
D. f
89. The orbitals of which of the following subshells have the most complicated shapes?
A. s
B. p
C. d
D. f
90. If we consider the elements C, N, and O, which types of orbitals do these elements use in bonding?
A. only s
B. only p
C. both s and p
D. s, p and d
91. Which of the following statements describe properties of orbitals?
A. Orbitals fill in the order of increasing energy from lowest to highest.
B. Each orbital can hold up to two electrons with spins paired.
C. When there is a set of orbitals of equal energy each orbital becomes half filled before any of them becomes
completely filled.
D. all of the above
92. When filling a set of orbitals of equal energy which of the following is true?
A. There are no sets of orbitals of equal energy.
B. Two electrons will occupy the same orbital rather than separate orbitals.
C. Two electrons will occupy different orbitals and have antiparallel spins.
D. Two electrons will occupy different orbitals and have parallel spins.
93. Which of the following is true when comparing two electrons which are in different shells of an atom?
A. The electron in the higher numbered shell is closer to the nucleus and is easier to remove.
B. The electron in the higher numbered shell is closer to the nucleus and is harder to remove.
C. The electron in the higher numbered shell is further from the nucleus and is easier to remove.
D. The electron in the higher numbered shell is further from the nucleus and is harder to remove.
94. Electrons can sometimes fill orbitals in a manner other than according to the rules we have specified. If
they do so we say the atom is in an excited state. Which of the following represent(s) the excited state of an
atom?
A. 1s
2
2s
2
2p
6
3s
2
B. 1s
2
2s
2
2p
6
3s
1
3p
1
C. both a and b
D. neither a nor b
95. Electrons can sometimes fill orbitals in a manner other than according to the rules we have specified. If
they do so we say the atom is in an excited state. Which of the following represent(s) the excited state of an
atom?
A. 1s
2
2s
2
2px
2
B. 1s
2
2s
1
2px
1
2py
1
2pz
1
C. both a and b
D. neither a nor b
96. Which of the following is the correct order of filling orbitals?
A. 1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p, 3d, 4s
B. 1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p, 4s, 3d
C. 1s, 2s, 3s, 4s, 2p, 3p, 3d
D. none of these
97. Which of the following correctly represents the electronic configuration of sulfur?
A. 1s
2
2s
2
2p
6
3s
2
3p
4
B. 1s
2
2s
2
2p
6
3s
2
3px
2
3py
1
3pz
1
C. [Ne]3s
2
3p
4
D. all of them
98. What is the maximum number of unpaired electrons in a Lewis structure?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
99. How many valence electrons are there in an oxygen atom?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
100. The number of valence electrons of a main group element is related to which of the following?
A. the element’s atomic number
B. the element’s atomic weight
C. the element’s column number
D. none of the above
101. How many unpaired electrons are there in a carbon atom in its ground state?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
102. How many unpaired electrons are there in a nitrogen atom in its ground state?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
103. How many unpaired electrons are there in an oxygen atom in its ground state?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
104. How many unpaired electrons are there in a fluorine atom in its ground state?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
105. Which of the following is the correct Lewis dot picture of the carbon atom?
A.
B.
C.
D.
106. Which of the following is the correct Lewis dot picture of the nitrogen atom?
A.
B.
C.
D.
107. Which of the following is the correct Lewis dot picture of the oxygen atom?
A.
B.
C.
D.
108. Which of the following is the most characteristic feature of the electronic configurations of the elements in
a vertical column?
A. The electron configurations are identical.
B. The valence electrons are of the same type and number.
C. The valence electrons are always paired.
D. The valence electrons are never paired.
109. Which of the following is true about elements in the same horizontal row of the periodic table?
A. The number of valence electrons remains the same throughout the row.
B. The number of valence electrons decreases as we move left to right across a row.
C. The number of valence electrons increases as we move left to right across a row.
D. There is no simple relationship between the number of valence electrons and the position of the element.
110. In the regions of the periodic table associated with the main group elements which orbitals are being
filled?
A. s only
B. p only
C. s or p
D. d
111. In the region of the periodic table associated with the transition elements which orbitals are being filled?
A. s
B. p
C. d
D. f
112. In the region of the periodic table associated with the inner transition elements which orbitals are being
filled?
A. s
B. p
C. d
D. f
113. How many elements are there in period 2?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 8
D. 18
114. How many elements are there in period 3?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 8
D. 18
115. How many elements are there in period 4?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 8
D. 18
116.
