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HomeTest Bank Test bank for hematology in practice 2nd edition by Betty Ciesla
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Test bank for hematology in practice 2nd edition by Betty Ciesla

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Category: Test Bank Tags: Betty Ciesla, hematology in practice 2nd edition
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Hematology and Basic Laboratory Practice

 

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

____     1.   Tube length when referring to the microscope is the:

a. Resolution power of the objective
b. Distance from the eyepiece to the objective
c. Numerical aperture
d. Magnitude of the image on the stage

 

 

____     2.   What is the most useful corrective action for the microscope when fine details cannot be visualized in immature cells?

a. Open up diaphragm for maximum light.
b. Wipe off lenses with lens cleaner.
c. Get a new slide.
d. Move to a lower power.

 

 

____     3.   Which of the following behaviors is a violation of standard precautions?

a. Handwashing after glove removal
b. Use of impermeable laboratory gowns
c. Use of goggles and face shields
d. Placing laboratory notebooks on laboratory work area

 

 

____     4.   Standards and calibrators differ from control materials because:

a. An exact amount of analyte is present in a standard or calibrator
b. A variable amount of analyte is present depending on patient samples
c. Standards only need to be within a target range
d. Standards are run to the best estimate of the known value

 

 

____     5.   If the confidence interval for most laboratories is 95.5%, what is the acceptable range for hemoglobin if a hemoglobin control was run with a mean of 12.5 and a standard deviation of 1.0?

a. 9.5 to 12.5
b. 10.5 to 14.5
c. 11.5 to 15.5
d. 10.0 to 13.5

 

 

____     6.   Proper mixing of samples and timely delivery of samples to the laboratory are both examples of:

a. Delta checks
b. Postanalytic variables
c. Preanalytic variables
d. Reflex testing

 

 

____     7.   A delta check is a historical reference on samples run in the laboratories. Once a sample fails a delta check, the most obvious corrective action is to:

a. Verify the identification of the patient sample
b. Reestablish the parameters of the delta check
c. Perform reflex testing
d. Perform a manual method

 

 

____     8.   Which of the following is the definition of a reference interval?

a. A solution of a known amount of analyte
b. Materials analyzed concurrently with unknown samples
c. Values established for a particular analyte, given a method, instrument, or patient population
d. Validation techniques on flagged samples

 

 

____     9.   Which of the following is not considered a postanalytic variable?

a. Delta checks
b. Proper anticoagulant used
c. Specimen checked for clots
d. Critical results called

 

 

____   10.   Error analysis, standard protocols, and turnaround time are all part of the:

a. Quality assurance system
b. Quality control program
c. Reference standards
d. Delta check protocol

 

 

____   11.   The average of a group of data points is defined as the:

a. Mean
b. Mode
c. Median
d. Modicum

 

 

____   12.   Safety training is part of new employee training in health care and includes:

a. Biological hazards
b. Chemical hazards
c. Environmental hazards
d. All of the above

 

 

____   13.   Control materials are:

a. Analyzed concurrently with the unknown samples
b. Substances with a known amount of analyte
c. Used to calibrate the method
d. All of the above

 

 

____   14.   Delta checks are used in the hematology laboratory to:

a. Compare past patient results to the current result
b. Verify control accuracy
c. Establish a target range
d. Establish reference ranges for a particular analyte

 

 

____   15.   When handwashing after a patient contact, the soap application process should last at least:

a. 5 seconds
b. 15 seconds
c. 20 seconds
d. 30 seconds

 

 

____   16.   Which of the following represents an example of a safety violation in the laboratory?

a. Application of cosmetics
b. Mouth pipetting
c. Consuming bottled water
d. All the above

 

 

True/False

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

 

____   17.   Standard deviation is a measurement of precision.

 

____   18.   Accuracy is a measurement of the true value of an analyte.

 

____   19.   A normal distribution curve will have 99.7% of the measured values fall within 2 SDs.

 

Short Answer

 

 

  1. Label the parts of the microscope.

 

 

Chapter 1: Introduction to Hematology and Basic Laboratory Practice

Answer Section

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                   PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                   PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                   PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                   PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                   PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                   PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                   PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                   PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                   PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                   PTS:   1

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

SHORT ANSWER

 

  1. ANS:
  2. Objectives
  3. Stage
  4. Eye piece
  5. Base
  6. Light source
  7. Iris diaphragm
  8. Course adjustment knob
  9. Fine adjustment knob
  10. Stage adjustment knobs
  11. Clips
  12. Substage condenser

 

 

PTS:   1

 

Chapter 5: The Microcytic Anemias

 

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

 

____     1.   Transferrin receptors for iron uptake are located on the:

a. Basophilic normoblast
b. Pronormoblast
c. Reticulocyte
d. Orthochromic normoblast

 

 

____     2.   Storage iron is usually determined by the:

a. Serum transferrin level
b. Hemoglobin value
c. Myoglobin value
d. Serum ferritin level

 

 

____     3.   In addition to iron ingestion, over 90% of iron in adults that is used for erythropoiesis is obtained through:

a. Transfusion
b. Recycling of iron
c. Storage forms from spleen and the liver
d. Hemosiderin

 

 

____     4.   The first stage of iron deficiency anemia is termed:

a. Microcytic hypochromic anemia
b. Iron depletion
c. Iron deficiency
d. Iron overload

 

 

____     5.   All of the following are symptoms of iron deficiency anemia except:

a. Pallor
b. Pica
c. Vertigo
d. Numbness

 

 

____     6.   In adults, which of the following is the most common cause of iron deficiency anemia?

a. Intestinal parasites
b. Malabsorptive disorders
c. Dietary content
d. Chronic blood loss

 

 

____     7.   Ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow are characteristics of which of the following disorders?

a. Chronic disease
b. Infection
c. Sideroblastic anemia
d. Inflammation

 

 

____     8.   Given the laboratory results of serum iron = 300 mg/dL, transferrin = 312 mg/dL, transferrin saturation = 122%, and ferritin = 1,000 ng/mL, which of the following should be considered?

a. Hereditary hemochromatosis
b. Anemia of inflammation
c. Iron deficiency anemia
d. Lead poisoning

 

 

____     9.   Which type of inclusion is likely to be seen in the above patient?

a. Howell-Jolly bodies
b. Pappenheimer bodies
c. Hemoglobin H inclusion bodies
d. Cabot rings

 

 

____   10.   A 15-year-old Lebanese boy was sent to the laboratory for an evaluation of anemia and had the following lab results:

a. WBC = 7.5 ´ 109/L
b. RBC = 5.9 ´ 1012/L
c. Hgb = 11.6 g/dL
d. Hct = 36%

 

 

____   11.   What is the presumptive clinical condition?

a. Pernicious anemia
b. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
c. Iron deficiency trait
d. Thalassemia trait

 

 

____   12.   The alpha thalassemic condition that is incompatible with life is:

a. Hemoglobin H disease
b. Bart’s hydrops fetalis
c. Alpha thalassemia trait
d. Silent carrier condition

 

 

____   13.   Which inclusion is associated with a “pitted,” golf ball appearance?

a. Hgb H inclusion
b. Howell-Jolly body
c. Cabot rings
d. Pappenheimer bodies

 

 

____   14.   Failure to thrive, facial structure abnormalities, severe anemia, and splenomegaly are signs of which of the following disorders?

a. Thalassemia minor
b. Alpha thalassemia trait
c. Thalassemia major
d. Thalassemia intermedia

 

 

____   15.   One of the gravest clinical problems for individuals with thalassemia major is:

a. Chronic anemia
b. Iron overload
c. Therapeutic phlebotomy
d. Collapsed veins

 

 

____   16.   The majority of the hemoglobin made in individuals with thalassemia major is:

a. Hemoglobin H
b. Hemoglobin A
c. Hemoglobin F
d. Hemoglobin Barts

 

 

____   17.   Which if the following is also known as Cooley’s anemia?

a. Alpha thalassemia
b. Beta thalassemia major
c. Hereditary hemochromatosis
d. IDA

 

 

____   18.   The alpha thalassemias result from:

a. Gene deletion
b. Defective alpha genes
c. Iron overload
d. Excessive production of alpha chains

 

 

____   19.   The globin chains found in hemoglobin A2 are:

a. Alpha 2, Delta 2
b. Alpha 2, Gamma 2
c. Alpha 2, Beta 2
d. Alpha 2, Epsilon 2

 

 

____   20.   The presence of which hemoglobin will result in an inherited methemoglobinemia?

a. Hemoglobin D
b. Hemoglobin M
c. Hemoglobin H
d. Bart’s hemoglobin

 

 

____   21.   Hemoglobin H disease is associated with:

a. Bart’s hydrops fetalis
b. Alpha thalassemia disease
c. Thalassemia major
d. Hereditary hemochromatosis

 

 

____   22.   The primary storage forms of iron are:

a. Ferritin and hemosiderin
b. Ferritin and transferrin
c. Hemosiderin and ferrous iron
d. Heme and ferritin

 

 

____   23.   In the United States, approximately ____ of the anemias seen are due to IDA.

a. 25%
b. 40%
c. 50%
d. 75%

 

 

____   24.   In iron deficiency anemia, the reticulocyte count will be:

a. Normal
b. Low
c. High
d. Extremely high

 

 

____   25.   In patients with iron overload, Desferal may be administered to chelate the excess iron. The chelated iron is shed in:

a. The feces
b. The urine
c. Gastric secretions
d. None of the above

 

 

True/False

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

 

____   26.   In regards to the thalassemias, the deficit has nothing to do with iron.

 

 

Chapter 5: The Microcytic Anemias

Answer Section

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                   PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                   PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                   PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                   PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                   PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                   PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                   PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                   PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                   PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                   PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. ANS:  T                    PTS:   1
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