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MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Which of the following is NOT equal to 1 mm? 1) _______
A) 10-3 m B) 100 μm C) 10 6 nm D) 0.1 cm E) 0.001 m
2) What structure does light pass through after leaving the condenser in a compound light
microscope?
2) _______
A) specimen B) ocular lens C) objective lens D) illuminator
3) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? 3) _______
A) crystal violet — simple stain
B) methylene blue — simple stain
C) nigrosin — negative stain
D) basic dye — negative stain
E) acidic dye — capsule stain
4) Which of the following places the steps of the Gram stain in the correct order?
1-Alcohol-acetone
2-Crystal violet
3-Safranin
4-Iodine
4) _______
A) 2-1-4-3 B) 1-3-2-4 C) 2-4-1-3 D) 4-3-2-1 E) 1-2-3-4
5) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? 5) _______
A) alcohol-acetone — decolorizer
B) crystal violet — basic dye
C) carbolfuchsin — basic dye
D) safranin — acid dye
E) iodine — mordant
6) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the acid-fast stain? 6) _______
A) If cells are acid-fast, they are gram-negative.
B) It is used to identify members of the genus Mycobacterium.
C) Non-acid-fast microbes appear blue in a completed acid-fast stain.
D) Acid-fast cells appear red in a completed acid-fast stain.
E) Acid-fast cells retain the primary dye after treatment with acid-alcohol.
7) The purpose of a mordant in the Gram stain is to 7) _______
A) remove the simple stain.
B) make gram-negative cells visible.
C) make the flagella visible.
D) prevent the crystal violet from leaving the cells.
E) make the bacterial cells larger.
8) Which of the following places the steps in the correct sequence?
1-Staining
2-Making a smear
3-Fixing
8) _______
A) 2-3-1
B) 1-3-2
C) 3-2-1
D) 1-2-3
E) The order is unimportant.
9) The negative stain is used to 9) _______
A) visualize capsules.
B) determine Gram reaction.
C) visualize endospores.
D) determine cell size.
E) determine flagella arrangement.
10) Simple staining is often necessary to improve contrast in which microscope? 10) ______
A) phase-contrast microscope
B) fluorescence microscope
C) darkfield microscope
D) compound light microscope
E) electron microscope
11) Which microscope is used to see internal structures of cells in a natural state? 11) ______
A) darkfield microscope
B) fluorescence microscope
C) phase-contrast microscope
D) electron microscope
E) compound light microscope
12) Which microscope uses visible light? 12) ______
A) scanning acoustic microscope
B) confocal microscope
C) fluorescence microscope
D) scanning electron microscope
E) differential interference contrast microscope
13) Which microscope achieves the highest magnification and greatest resolution? 13) ______
A) fluorescence microscope
B) darkfield microscope
C) phase-contrast microscope
D) compound light microscope
E) electron microscope
14) In using this microscope, the observer does NOT look directly at an image through a lens. 14) ______
A) phase-contrast microscope
B) electron microscope
C) fluorescence microscope
D) compound light microscope
E) darkfield microscope
15) This microscope produces an image of a light cell against a dark background; internal structures
are NOT visible.
15) ______
A) electron microscope
B) compound light microscope
C) phase-contrast microscope
D) fluorescence microscope
E) darkfield microscope
16) A virus measures 100 nm in length. What is its length in μm? 16) ______
A) 0.01 μm B) 1 μm C) 0.001 μm D) 10 μm E) .1 μm
17) Which of the following is NOT useful for observing living cells? 17) ______
A) darkfield microscope
B) brightfield microscope
C) scanning acoustic microscope
D) scanning electron microscope
E) phase-contrast microscope
18) A microorganism measures 5 μm in length. Its length in mm would be 18) ______
A) 50 mm. B) 0.5 mm. C) 500 mm. D) 0.005 mm. E) 0.05 mm.
19) Which of the following correctly traces the path of light through the compound microscope? 19) ______
A) condenser; light source; specimen; ocular lens; objective lens
B) light source; condenser; objective lens; specimen; ocular lens
C) light source; specimen; condenser; objective lens; ocular lens
D) light source; condenser; specimen; objective lens; ocular lens
E) condenser; light source; specimen; objective lens; ocular lens
Figure 3.1
20) In Figure 3.1, line “c” points to the microscope’s 20) ______
A) illuminator. B) condenser. C) objective lens. D) ocular lens.
21) Which microscope can be used to visualize DNA or botulinum toxin? 21) ______
A) scanning electron microscope
B) compound light microscope
C) scanning tunneling microscope
D) confocal microscope
E) phase-contrast microscope
22) Which microscope is used to observe a specimen that emits light when illuminated with an
ultraviolet light?
22) ______
A) electron microscope
B) darkfield microscope
C) compound light microscope
D) phase-contrast microscope
E) fluorescence microscope
23) Which microscope is most useful for visualizing a biofilm? 23) ______
A) phase-contrast microscope
B) compound light microscope
C) fluorescence microscope
D) transmission electron microscope
E) scanning acoustic microscope
24) Which microscope takes advantage of differences in the refractive indexes of cell structures? 24) ______
A) phase-contrast microscope
B) compound light microscope
C) darkfield microscope
D) electron microscope
E) fluorescence microscope
25) You are performing a Gram stain on gram-positive bacteria and you stop after the addition of
the first dye. What is the appearance of the bacteria at this point?
25) ______
A) colorless B) purple C) brown D) red
26) You are performing a Gram stain on gram-negative bacteria and you stop after the addition of
the mordant. What is the appearance of the bacteria at this point?
26) ______
A) colorless B) brown C) red D) purple
27) You are performing a Gram stain on gram-negative bacteria and you stop after the decolorizer
step. What is the appearance of the bacteria at this point?
27) ______
A) purple B) brown C) colorless D) red
28) You are performing a Gram stain on gram-positive bacteria and you stop after the addition of
the counterstain. What is the appearance of the bacteria at this point?
28) ______
A) red B) purple C) colorless D) brown
29) Which type of stain is most useful in helping clinicians to decide which antibiotic to prescribe for
a bacterial infection?
29) ______
A) Gram stain
B) flagella stain
C) endospore stain
D) simple stain
E) negative stain
30) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? 30) ______
A) darkfield microscope —uses visible light
B) fluorescence microscope —uses a fluorescent light
C) scanning tunneling microscope —allows visualization of atoms
D) scanning electron microscope —produces a three-dimensional image
E) confocal microscope —produces a three-dimensional image
31) What is the total magnification of a specimen viewed with a 10x ocular lens and a 45x objective
lens?
31) ______
A) 450x B) 4.5x C) 45x D) 100x E) 10x
32) You are studying a cell structure that is approximately 100 nm in size. Which of the following
provides the lowest magnification you can use to see this structure?
32) ______
A) scanning electron microscope
B) transmission electron microscope
C) phase-contrast microscope
D) darkfield microscope
E) brightfield microscope
33) Which microscope uses two beams of light to produce a three-dimensional color image? 33) ______
A) fluorescence microscope
B) DIC microscope
C) phase-contrast microscope
D) electron microscope
E) darkfield microscope
34) Which microscope is used to see intracellular detail in a living cell? 34) ______
A) brightfield microscope
B) fluorescence microscope
C) two-photon microscope
D) atomic force microscope
E) transmission electron microscope
35) Which microscope is used to observe viruses and the internal structure of thinly sectioned
cells?
35) ______
A) brightfield microscope
B) fluorescence microscope
C) darkfield microscope
D) scanning electron microscope
E) transmission electron microscope
36) Which microscope is used to see detail of a 300-nm virus? 36) ______
A) darkfield microscope
B) phase-contrast microscope
C) electron microscope
D) DIC microscope
E) fluorescence microscope
37) Assume you stain Bacillus by applying malachite green with heat and then counterstaining with
safranin. Through the microscope, the green structures are
37) ______
A) capsules.
B) flagella.
C) cell walls.
D) endospores.
E) The answer cannot be determined.
38) Which step in the Gram stain is the critical step in differentiating gram-positive cells from
gram-negative cells?
38) ______
A) alcohol-acetone B) iodine
C) safranin D) crystal violet
39) You find colorless areas in cells in a gram-stained smear. What should you apply next? 39) ______
A) an acid-fast stain
B) a capsule stain
C) a flagella stain
D) a simple stain
E) an endospore stain
40) Which microscope is best used for observing the surfaces of intact cells and viruses? 40) ______
A) scanning electron microscope
B) phase-contrast microscope
C) fluorescence microscope
D) brightfield microscope
E) darkfield microscope
41) Bacterial smears are fixed before staining to 41) ______
A) make the cells visible. B) make their walls permeable.
C) accept stain. D) affix the cells to the slide.
42) The resolution of a microscope can be improved by changing the 42) ______
A) diaphragm.
B) coarse adjustment.
C) wavelength of light.
D) condenser.
E) fine adjustment.
43) A student is looking at a bacterial specimen using the oil immersion lens, but has forgotten to
put immersion oil on the slide. The specimen will appear
43) ______
A) to have no color.
B) somewhat fuzzy and have poor resolution.
C) smaller than it would if immersion oil was used.
D) larger than it would if immersion oil was used.
E) the same as it would if the immersion oil was used.
44) The purpose of the ocular lens is to 44) ______
A) decrease the light.
B) decrease the refractive index.
C) improve resolution.
D) magnify the image from the objective lens.
E) increase the light.
45) ) In microscopy, the term resolution 45) ______
A) is only observed in stained specimens.
B) is improved when longer wavelengths of light are employed.
C) refers to magnification when using the electron microscope.
D) refers to the ability to distinguish fine structure and detail in a specimen.
E) is the same as the total magnification of a specimen.
TRUE/FALSE. Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
46) The counterstain used in the Gram stain is a basic dye. 46) ______
47) In a completed Gram stain, gram-negative bacteria are colorless. 47) ______
48) In a completed Gram stain, gram-positive bacteria are purple. 48) ______
49) If acid-fast bacteria are stained with the Gram stain, they will stain gram-negative. 49) ______
50) The limit of resolution of the compound microscope illuminated with visible light is
approximately 0.2 μm.
50) ______
51) Both phase-contrast microscopy and differential interference contrast microscopy are used to
view the internal structures of cells without staining.
51) ______
52) Cells viewed in darkfield microscopy appear similar to those stained with the negative stain. 52) ______
53) The capsules and flagella of bacteria can be observed in gram-stained smears. 53) ______
54) The greater resolution of the electron microscope compared to the compound microscope is due
to the longer wavelengths of the electrons used to examine specimens.
54) ______
55) Scanned probe microscopy is used to examine fine detail of molecular complexes, such as blood
clots, or molecules, such as DNA.
55) ______
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
56) In 1877, Robert Koch thought preparing permanently stained slides would be valuable. Why
was his assessment correct?
57) In 1884, Hans Christian Gram described a method of staining bacterial cells while not staining surrounding
animal tissues. However, he thought that the staining method he developed was faulty because not all
bacteria stained. In a letter to the editor of the journal in which Gram published his findings, write your
response to Gram’s concern.
58) You are working in a clinical laboratory and you need to examine an unstained urine sample for the presence
of bacteria. What type of light microscope should you use to observe this specimen? Explain your answer.
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
59) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding prokaryotic cells? 59) ______
A) They typically have a circular chromosome.
B) Their DNA is not enclosed within a membrane.
C) They lack membrane-enclosed organelles.
D) They lack a plasma membrane.
E) They reproduce by binary fission.
60) Each of the following statements concerning the gram-positive cell wall is true EXCEPT 60) ______
A) it is sensitive to lysozyme.
B) it protects the cell in a hypertonic environment.
C) it maintains the shape of the cell.
D) it is sensitive to penicillin.
E) it contains teichoic acids.
61) Which of the following statements best describes what happens when a bacterial cell is placed in
a solution containing 5 percent NaCl?
61) ______
A) Water will move into the cell.
B) Sucrose will move into the cell from a higher to a lower concentration.
C) The cell will undergo osmotic lysis.
D) Water will move out of the cell.
E) No change will result; the solution is isotonic.
62) A gram-positive bacteria suddenly acquires resistance to the antibiotic methicillin. This trait most likely
occurred
due to
62) ___
___
A) binary fission.
B) meisosis.
C) conjugation.
D) transformation.
E) transduction.
63) By which of the following mechanisms can a cell transport a substance from a lower to a higher
concentration?
63) ______
A) aquaporins
B) facilitated diffusion
C) simple diffusion
D) extracellular enzymes
E) active transport
64) Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of most bacterial plasma membranes? 64) ______
A) is selectively permeable
B) composed of a phospholipid bilayer
C) site of energy production
D) contains proteins
E) contains cholesterol
65) Which of the following have a cell wall? 65) ______
A) mycoplasmas
B) fungi
C) protoplasts
D) L forms
E) animal cells
66) Which of the following statements is TRUE? 66) ______
A) A cell produces one endospore and keeps growing.
B) Endospores allow a cell to survive environmental changes.
C) Endospores are for reproduction.
D) A cell can produce many endospores.
E) Endospores are easily stained in a Gram stain.
67) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? 67) ______
A) endoplasmic reticulum internal transport
B) Golgi complex secretion
C) centrosome food storage
D) lysosome digestive enzymes
E) mitochondria ATP production
68) Which of the following organelles most closely resembles a prokaryotic cell? 68) ______
A) Golgi complex
B) cell wall
C) nucleus
D) mitochondrion
E) vacuole
Figure 4.1
69) Which drawing in Figure 4.1 is a tetrad? 69) ______
A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e
70) Which drawing in Figure 4.1 possesses an axial filament? 70) ______
A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e
71) Which drawing in Figure 4.1 is streptococci? 71) ______
A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e
72) Antibiotics that target cell wall synthesis ultimately cause bacterial cell death as a result of 72) ______
A) plasmolysis.
B) inhibition of molecular transport.
C) osmotic lysis.
D) decreased synthesis of peptidoglycan.
E) cell shrinkage.
73) Bacteria are a commonly used organism for studies of genetic material in the research laboratory.
The nucleic acids must first be isolated from the cells for these studies. Which of the following
would most likely be used to lyse the bacterial cells for nucleic acid isolation?
73) ______
A) polymixins
B) water
C) alcohol
D) mycolic acid
E) lysozyme
74) Which of the following statements about gram-negative cell walls is FALSE? 74) ______
A) They are toxic to humans.
B) They have an extra outer layer composed of lipoproteins, lipopolysaccharides, and
phospholipids.
C) Their Gram reaction is due to the outer membrane.
D) They protect the cell in a hypotonic environment.
E) They are sensitive to penicillin.
75) Which of the following structures is NOT found in some prokaryotic cells? 75) ______
A) pilus
B) flagellum
C) cilium
D) peritrichous flagella
E) axial filament
76) Functions of the glycocalyx include all of the following EXCEPT 76) ______
A) biofilm formation.
B) source of nutrition.
C) binary fission.
D) protection against dehydration.
E) increased virulence.
77) Which structure acts like an “invisibility cloak” and protects bacteria from being phagocytized? 77) ______
A) capsule
B) slime layer
C) cell wall
D) fimbriae
E) cell membrane
78) Which of the following is NOT part of the passive transport process? 78) ______
A) plasma membrane
B) concentration gradient
C) aquaporins
D) transporter proteins
E) ATP
Figure 4.2
79) Which of the following terms best describes the cell in Figure 4.2? 79) ______
A) peritrichous flagella
B) amphitrichous flagella
C) lophotrichous flagella
D) axial filament
E) monotrichous flagella
80) In bacteria, photosynthetic pigments are found in 80) ______
A) chromatophores.
B) ribosomes.
C) cytoplasm.
D) chloroplasts.
E) mesosomes.
81) The difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion is that facilitated diffusion 81) ______
A) moves materials from a lower to a higher concentration.
B) requires transporter proteins.
C) does not require ATP.
D) requires ATP.
E) moves materials from a higher to a lower concentration.
82) The terms “run” and “tumble” are generally associated with 82) ______
A) cell wall fluidity.
B) cell membrane synthesis.
C) clustering properties of certain rod-shaped bacteria.
D) taxic movements of the cell.
83) You have isolated a motile, gram-positive cell with no visible nucleus. You can safely assume
that the cell
83) ______
A) lives in an extreme environment.
B) has 9 pairs + 2 flagella.
C) has a mitochondrion.
D) has a cell wall.
E) has cilia.
84) Fimbriae and pili differ in that 84) ______
A) there are only one or two pili per cell.
B) pili are used for motility.
C) pili are used to transfer DNA.
D) pili are used for transfer of DNA and motility.
E) pili are used for attachment to surfaces.
Figure 4.3
85) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is a gram-negative cell wall? 85) ______
A) a
B) b
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
86) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall possesses molecules responsible for symptoms
associated with infection?
86) ______
A) a
B) b
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
87) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall has a structure that protects against osmotic lysis? 87) ______
A) a
B) b
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
88) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is decolorized by alcohol? 88) ______
A) a
B) b
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
89) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is resistant to many antibiotics (e.g., penicillin)? 89) ______
A) a
B) b
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
90) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall contains teichoic acids? 90) ______
A) a
B) b
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
91) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall contains porins? 91) ______
A) a
B) b
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
92) Where are phospholipids most likely found in a prokaryotic cell? 92) ______
A) flagella
B) around organelles
C) the plasma membrane
D) ribosomes
E) the plasma membrane and around organelles
93) Where are phospholipids most likely found in a eukaryotic cell? 93) ______
A) ribosomes
B) the plasma membrane
C) surrounding flagella
D) around organelles
E) the plasma membrane, around organelles, and surrounding flagella
94) Which of the following is NOT found in mitochondria and prokaryotes? 94) ______
A) cell wall
B) binary fission
C) circular chromosome
D) 70S ribosomes
E) ATP-generating mechanism
95) Which of the following statements is correct about diffusion? 95) ______
A) It requires an expenditure of energy by the cell.
B) It is an active process in which molecules move from a region of lower concentration to one
of higher concentration.
C) It may require a transport protein.
D) It is a passive process in which molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a
region of lower concentration.
E) It involves movement of molecules down a concentration gradient and may require a
transport protein.
96) Oxygen crosses a plasma membrane 96) ______
A) by osmosis.
B) through facilitated diffusion.
C) through porins.
D) through simple diffusion.
E) with the help of a nonspecific transporter.
97) In a hypertonic solution, a bacterial cell will typically 97) ______
A) burst.
B) plasmolyze.
C) osmolyze.
D) lyse.
E) stay the same.
98) What will happen if a bacterial cell is placed in distilled water with lysozyme? 98) ______
A) The cell will plasmolyze.
B) Lysozyme will diffuse into the cell.
C) Water will leave the cell.
D) The cell will undergo osmotic lysis.
E) No change will result; the solution is isotonic.
99) How do spirochetes and spirilla differ? 99) ______
A) Spirochetes have a rigid, corkscrew shape while spirilla are helical and more flexible.
B) Spirochetes and spirilla are basically the same organisms and the terms can be used
interchangeably.
C) Spirilla are found in chains of cells whereas spirochetes exist as individual cells.
D) Spirilla have an external flagella but spirochetes have axial filaments.
E) Spirochetes do not have a cell wall but spirilla do.
100) Which one of the following pairs is mismatched? 100) _____
A) ribosomes – protein storage
B) sulfur granules – energy reserve
C) metachromatic granules – phosphate storage
D) lipid inclusions – energy reserve
E) gas vacuoles – flotation
101) Which of the following are NOT energy reserves? 101) _____
A) polysaccharide granules
B) sulfur granules
C) metachromatic granules
D) lipid inclusions
E) carboxysomes
102) Which of the following is NOT a functionally analogous pair? 102) _____
A) 9+2 flagella – bacterial flagella
B) nucleus -nucleiod region
C) mitochondria – prokaryotic plasma membrane
D) cilia – pili
E) chloroplasts – thylakoids
103) The DNA found in most bacterial cells 103) _____
A) utilizes histones for chromosomal packaging.
B) is found in multiple copies.
C) is surrounded by a nuclear membrane.
D) is linear in structure.
E) is circular in structure.
TRUE/FALSE. Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
104) The cell walls of bacteria are responsible for the shape of the bacteria and the difference in the
Gram stain reaction.
104) _____
105) Antibiotics that target the cell wall are an effective treatment against many pathogenic bacteria. 105) _____
106) Cells placed in a hypotonic solution tend to lose water due to osmotic pressure. 106) _____
107) Small, hydrophobic molecules pass through a cell membrane most easily by diffusion. 107) _____
108) Spheroplasts, protoplasts, and mycoplasms are bacterial cells without cell walls. 108) _____
109) Endospores are a reproductive structure. 109) _____
110) The internal structure of eukaryotic cilia and flagella are the same. 110) _____
111) Many enzymes in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are compartmentalized within
organelles.
111) _____
112) The number of organelles such as chloroplasts, mitochondria, and rough endoplasmic reticulum
is the same in all eukaryotic cells.
112) _____
113) If you observe rod-shaped red cells after the Gram stain, you can assume their cell walls contain
endotoxin.
113) _____
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
114) Compare and contrast the characteristics of a typical prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell.
115) Provide evidence to substantiate the hypothesis that eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic cells.
116) Compare and contrast gram-positive and gram-negative cell walls with regard to (a) sensitivity to
antimicrobial agents, (b) resistance to phagocytosis, (c) chemical composition, and (d) decolorization by
alcohol.
117) What is a biofilm and what role does biofilm play in disease?
1) B
2) A
3) D
4) C
5) D
6) A
7) D
8) A
9) A
10) D
11) C
12) E
13) E
14) B
15) E
16) E
17) D
18) D
19) D
20) B
21) C
22) E
23) E
24) A
25) B
26) D
27) C
28) B
29) A
30) B
31) A
32) A
33) B
34) C
35) E
36) C
37) D
38) A
39) E
40) A
41) D
42) C
43) B
44) D
45) D
46) TRUE
47) FALSE
48) TRUE
49) FALSE
50) TRUE
51) TRUE
52) TRUE
53) FALSE
54) FALSE
55) TRUE
56)
57)
58)
59) D
60) B
61) D
62) C
63) E
64) E
65) B
66) B
67) C
68) D
69) B
70) A
71) D
72) C
73) E
74) E
75) C
76) C
77) A
78) E
79) C
80) A
81) B
82) D
83) D
84) D
85) B
86) B
87) C
88) B
89) B
90) A
91) A
92) C
93) E
94) A
95) E
96) D
97) B
98) D
99) D
100) A
101) E
102) D
103) E
104) TRUE
105) TRUE
106) FALSE
107) TRUE
108) TRUE
109) FALSE
110) TRUE
111) FALSE
112) FALSE
113) TRUE
114)
115)
116)
117)