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MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) In microbiology, the term growth usually refers to which of the following? 1) _______
A) an increase in the number of microbial cells
B) an increase in the number and size of microbial cells
C) an increase in a microbe’s size
D) an increase in the amount of ATP produced
E) an increase in the number and size of microbial cells and the amount of ATP produced
2) A cell that uses an organic carbon source and obtains energy from light would be called a 2) _______
A) photoautotroph.
B) lithoautotroph.
C) chemoautotroph.
D) photoheterotroph.
E) chemoheterotroph.
3) A(n) ________ organism is one that requires oxygen for growth. 3) _______
A) anaerobic
B) obligate aerobic
C) facultative anaerobic
D) aerotolerant
E) both aerotolerant and anaerobic
4) An aquatic microbe that can grow only at the surface of the water is probably which of the
following?
4) _______
A) an anaerobe
B) a heterotroph
C) a chemotroph
D) a lithotroph
E) a phototroph
5) Which of the following forms of oxygen is detoxified by the enzyme catalase? 5) _______
A) singlet oxygen
B) molecular oxygen
C) peroxide anion
D) superoxide radical
E) hydroxyl radical
6) All of the following are used to protect organisms from the toxic by-products of oxygen EXCEPT 6) _______
A) carotenoids.
B) protease.
C) superoxide dismutase.
D) peroxidase.
E) catalase.
7) A microbe that grows only at the bottom of a tube of thioglycollate medium is probably a(n) 7) _______
A) facultative anaerobe.
B) microaerophile.
C) aerotolerant anaerobe.
D) obligate anaerobe.
E) obligate aerobe.
8) Nitrogen is a growth limiting nutrient for many organisms because 8) _______
A) only a small number of bacteria are able to extract it from the atmosphere.
B) it is required for lipid synthesis.
C) only a few microbes can extract it from the atmosphere, but all organisms require it for
amino acid and nucleotide synthesis.
D) it is required for synthesis of nucleotides.
E) it is necessary for the biosynthesis of amino acids.
9) All of the following are examples of growth factors used by microbes EXCEPT 9) _______
A) heme.
B) NADH.
C) amino acids.
D) selenium.
E) vitamins.
10) At temperatures higher than the maximum growth temperature for an organism, 10) ______
A) hydrogen bonds are broken, proteins are denatured, and membranes become too fluid.
B) membranes become too fluid for proper function.
C) hydrogen bonds within molecules are broken.
D) hydrogen bonds are broken, and proteins are permanently denatured.
E) proteins are permanently denatured.
11) Human pathogens are classified as 11) ______
A) psychrophiles.
B) hyperthermophiles.
C) thermoduric.
D) mesophiles.
E) thermophiles.
12) The term barophile refers to which of the following growth requirements? 12) ______
A) pH
B) nitrogen source
C) osmotic pressure
D) temperature
E) hydrostatic pressure
13) Which of the following organisms would be most likely to contaminate a jar of pickles? 13) ______
A) an acidophile
B) a thermophile
C) an obligate anaerobe
D) a mesophile
E) a neutrophile
14) Organisms that can grow with or without oxygen present are 14) ______
A) aerotolerant anaerobes.
B) facultative anaerobes.
C) obligate aerobes.
D) obligate anaerobes.
E) either facultative anaerobes or aerotolerant anaerobes.
15) A fastidious organism might be grown on which of the following types of media? 15) ______
A) enriched media
B) transport media
C) differential media
D) selective media
E) reducing media
16) Obligate anaerobes may be cultured in the laboratory 16) ______
A) on blood agar plates in a candle jar.
B) in a reducing medium.
C) on blood agar plates.
D) in a candle jar.
E) in standard Petri plates.
17) Joan wants to discover a microbe capable of degrading an environmental contaminant. Which of
the following refers to the process she should use?
17) ______
A) quorum sensing
B) binary fission
C) enrichment culture
D) nitrogen fixation
E) lyophilization
18) A microbiologist inoculates a growth medium with 100 bacterial cells/ml. If the generation time
of the species is 1 hour, how long will it be before the culture contains more than 10,000 cells/ml?
18) ______
A) 3 hours B) 2 hours C) 10 hours D) 7 hours E) 24 hours
19) An epidemiologist is investigating a new disease and observes what appear to be bacteria inside
tissue cells in clinical samples from victims. The scientist wants to try to isolate the bacteria in
the lab. What culture conditions are most likely to be successful?
19) ______
A) inoculation of EMB plates
B) incubation in a candle jar
C) culturing on blood agar plates
D) inoculation of cell cultures
E) inoculation of a minimal medium broth
20) Which of the following measurement techniques would be useful to quantify a species of
bacteria that is difficult to culture?
20) ______
A) membrane filtration
B) microscopic counts
C) metabolic activity
D) viable plate counts
E) MPN
21) MacConkey agar plates represent ________ medium. 21) ______
A) a differential
B) a selective
C) a minimal
D) both a differential and a selective
E) both a minimal and a selective
22) A Petroff-Hauser counting chamber is 22) ______
A) a glass slide containing an etched grid for counting microbes directly using a microscope.
B) a device that counts cells as they interrupt an electrical current.
C) a device used to count numbers of bacterial colonies on a Petri plate.
D) an apparatus that traps bacterial cells on a membrane filter where they can be counted.
E) a device that measures the amount of light that passes through a culture.
23) Another term for the logarithmic growth of bacterial cells is 23) ______
A) arithmetic growth.
B) generation time.
C) absorbance.
D) exponential growth.
E) binary fission.
24) A device that removes wastes and adds fresh medium to bacterial cultures in order to prolong
the log phase of a culture is called a(n)
24) ______
A) cytometer.
B) pellicle.
C) spectrophotometer.
D) chemostat.
E) Coulter counter.
25) A specimen of urine is determined to contain 30 bacterial cells per microliter. How many cells
would be present in a milliliter?
25) ______
A) 3 B) 30,000 C) 3,000 D) 30 million E) 300
26) Which of the following is NOT a direct method for measuring the number of microbes in a
sample?
26) ______
A) membrane filtration
B) Coulter counter
C) turbidity
D) viable plate counts
E) MPN
27) During which growth phase are bacteria more susceptible to antimicrobial drugs? 27) ______
A) stationary phase
B) log phase
C) lag phase
D) death phase
E) the susceptibility is the same for all phases
28) The use of salt and sugar in preserving various types of foods is an application of which of the
following concepts?
28) ______
A) quorum sensing
B) nitrogen fixation
C) pH
D) osmotic pressure
E) hydrostatic pressure
29) A clinical sample labeled as “sputum” was collected from 29) ______
A) the skin.
B) the blood.
C) the lungs.
D) a piece of tissue.
E) the central nervous system.
30) The method of obtaining isolated cultures that utilizes surface area to dilute specimens is called 30) ______
A) transport media.
B) enrichment culturing.
C) the streak-plate technique.
D) serial dilution.
E) the pour-plate technique.
31) ________ are complex communities of various types of microbes that adhere to surfaces. 31) ______
A) Isolates
B) Media
C) Colonies
D) Biofilms
E) Aggregates
32) A colony-forming unit is the number of cells 32) ______
A) that can be placed on a Petri plate.
B) that produces one colony.
C) in a particular specimen.
D) in a colony.
E) that is in exponential phase in a culture.
33) All of the following ingredients might be found in complex media EXCEPT 33) ______
A) blood.
B) soy extract.
C) hydrogen peroxide.
D) yeast extract.
E) milk proteins.
34) Sodium thioglycollate is associated with which of the following types of media? 34) ______
A) transport media
B) reducing media
C) complex media
D) differential media
E) selective media
35) Which of the following quantification techniques can distinguish living cells from dead cells in a
culture?
35) ______
A) a Coulter counter
B) metabolic activity
C) dry weight
D) microscopic counts
E) turbidity
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
Match the statements with the appropriate phase of the bacterial growth curve:
A) Lag phase
B) Log phase
C) Death phase
D) Stationary phase
36) New cells are being produced at the same rate as other cells are dying 36) _____________
37) Cells are dying faster than new cells are being produced 37) _____________
38) Cells are metabolically active but not dividing 38) _____________
39) The phase normally maintained by means of a chemostat 39) _____________
40) Cells are rapidly growing and dividing 40) _____________
Match each term with the appropriate description:
A) Hydrostatic pressure
B) Salt concentration
C) pH
D) Carbon dioxide levels
E) Oxygen levels
41) Halophile 41) _____________
42) Capnophile 42) _____________
43) Barophile 43) _____________
44) Microaerophile 44) _____________
45) Acidophile 45) _____________
TRUE/FALSE. Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
46) Obligate anaerobes have enzymes such as superoxide dismutase to protect them from the
damaging effects of oxygen.
46) ______
47) Nitrogen fixation is a process that occurs in all bacteria. 47) ______
48) Thermoduric mesophiles are often responsible for spoilage of improperly canned foods. 48) ______
49) An obligate halophile will burst if placed in freshwater. 49) ______
50) The only effective way to store bacterial cultures for short periods of time is to arrest their
metabolism by freezing.
50) ______
51) Quorum sensing is a process by which bacteria respond to the density of other bacteria in their
environment.
51) ______
52) An obligate anaerobe can be cultured in a candle jar. 52) ______
53) Agar is a useful compound in the microbiology lab because it is an excellent nutrient for bacteria. 53) ______
54) A selective medium can be formulated either by including inhibitory chemical substances or by
leaving out a single crucial nutrient.
54) ______
55) In spectrophotometry, 40% light transmission is the same thing as 60% absorbance of light. 55) ______
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
Correct answers may contain more than one word.
56) The conversion of nitrogen gas to ammonia is called ________. 56) _____________
57) ________ are organisms that require organic sources of carbon and energy. 57) _____________
58) The ________ radical is formed during the incomplete reduction of O2 during electron
transport in aerobes.
58) _____________
59) The ________ growth temperature is the temperature at which an organism exhibits the
highest growth rate.
59) _____________
60) Bacteria that thrive at human body temperatures are classified as ________. 60) _____________
61) ________ can survive in water up to pH 11.5. 61) _____________
62) Cells that are exposed to hypertonic environments will exhibit ________. 62) _____________
63) A(n) ________ is a sample of microorganisms introduced into a growth medium. 63) _____________
64) A(n) ________ is composed of cells that arise from a single colony. 64) _____________
65) ________ is a gelling agent derived from algae that is useful for creating solid growth
media.
65) _____________
66) A sample placed into fresh medium is typically initially in the ________ phase of
microbial growth.
66) _____________
67) A(n) ________ plots the number of organisms in a growing population over time. 67) _____________
68) ________ is a method of counting cells that have been stained or tagged with fluorescent
dyes.
68) _____________
69) A film of cells at the surface of a broth is called a(n) ________. 69) _____________
70) A(n) ________ can measure changes in the turbidity of a bacterial culture. 70) _____________
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
71) Explain how aerobic organisms tolerate the presence of oxygen in their metabolic pathways despite its toxic
properties.
72) Explain how temperature and pH levels can influence microbial infections in the human body.
73) Compare and contrast the streak-plate method of isolation with the pour-plate method of isolation.
74) Genetic methods of detecting microorganisms reveal that the number of bacterial species in nature exceeds
previous estimates by several orders of magnitude. In the human mouth, for example, it is estimated that
500—700 microbial species are normally present. Explain why previous estimates were low.
75) Explain the similarities and differences between direct and indirect methods of measuring microbial growth,
and give examples of each.
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
76) All of the following are associated with nucleic acid structure EXCEPT 76) ______
A) phosphate.
B) ionic bonds.
C) ribose.
D) hydrogen bonds.
E) uracil.
77) Which of the following is found at the 5 end of a DNA strand? 77) ______
A) a phosphate group
B) a hydroxyl group
C) a hydrogen bond
D) histones
E) a methyl group
78) The bacterial chromosome is 78) ______
A) found in a nucleus.
B) found in a nucleoid.
C) usually circular.
D) both circular and found in a nucleoid.
E) both circular and found in a nucleus.
79) Which of the following types of plasmids allows a bacterial cell to kill its competitors? 79) ______
A) bacteriocin factors
B) virulence factors
C) fertility factors
D) cryptic plasmids
E) resistance factors
80) Which of the following is NOT involved the packaging of eukaryotic chromosomes? 80) ______
A) heterochromatin
B) nucleosomes
C) Okazaki fragments
D) histones
E) euchromatin
81) Which of the following statements is true of bacterial plasmids? 81) ______
A) They are small circular DNA molecules.
B) They can replicate autonomously.
C) They are found in the nucleoid.
D) They carry genes for essential metabolic functions.
E) They are small circular DNA molecules that can replicate autonomously.
82) DNA helicases 82) ______
A) synthesize short DNA molecules important for the function of DNA polymerase.
B) assist in recognition of promoters during transcription.
C) break hydrogen bonds between complementary nucleotides.
D) proofread DNA molecules.
E) seal gaps between DNA fragments.
83) Which of the following statements concerning transcription in bacteria is FALSE? 83) ______
A) It occurs in the nucleoid region.
B) The same RNA polymerase transcribes primer RNA, mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA.
C) Sigma factors are parts of RNA polymerase that recognize promoter regions.
D) There are a variety of sigma factors that affect transcription.
E) Termination is either self-induced or due to the presence of Rho protein.
84) Which of the following is involved in translation? 84) ______
A) both mRNA and tRNA
B) mRNA, rRNA and tRNA are all involved.
C) tRNA
D) rRNA
E) mRNA
85) Which of the following is a characteristic shared by DNA and RNA polymerases? 85) ______
A) speed
B) dependence on helicase
C) type of nucleotides used
D) efficiency of proofreading
E) direction of polymerization
86) Which of the following is the strongest base pair? 86) ______
A) both adenine-uracil and adenine-thymine
B) adenine-uracil
C) guanine-cytosine
D) guanine-thymine
E) adenine-thymine
87) A codon is a particular combination of three nucleotides. Therefore, there are ________ possible
combinations of the nucleotides A, C, G, and T.
87) ______
A) 32 B) 16 C) 4 D) 12 E) 64
88) The AUG codon functions in coding for the amino acid methionine and as a 88) ______
A) start signal.
B) recognition site for RNA polymerase.
C) “wobble” codon.
D) termination signal.
E) marker for introns.
89) Which of the following must be removed from a eukaryotic mRNA molecule before it can be
translated?
89) ______
A) exon B) codon C) intron D) anticodon E) promoter
90) A charged tRNA first enters the ribosomal ________ site and then moves into the ________ site. 90) ______
A) A, P B) P, E C) P, A D) A, E E) E, A
91) Which of the following statements regarding eukaryotic transcription is FALSE? 91) ______
A) Multiple transcription factors are required.
B) Transcription occurs in the nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts (if present).
C) A guanine is added to the 3 end, and a poly-A tail is added to the 5 end of the mRNA
transcript.
D) There are four different RNA polymerases.
E) Multiple elongation factors are required.
92) Semiconservative DNA replication means that 92) ______
A) the sequence of a DNA molecule is preserved as it is being replicated.
B) nucleotides are constantly being recycled as cells make DNA.
C) each daughter DNA molecule is composed of one original strand and one new strand.
D) each strand of a double-stranded DNA molecule is replicated differently.
E) the cell can proofread its newly synthesized DNA only part of the time.
93) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Okazaki fragments? 93) ______
A) They make up the lagging strand of replicated DNA.
B) They begin with an RNA primer.
C) They are joined together by DNA ligase.
D) They are checked for accuracy by DNA polymerase III.
E) They are longer in eukaryotic cells.
94) The proofreading function of DNA polymerase III results in an error rate of ________ during
DNA replication.
94) ______
A) 1 error in 1,000 bases
B) 1 error in 100,000 bases
C) 1 error in 1 million bases
D) 1 error in 10 million bases
E) 1 error in 10 billion bases
95) Which of the following processes is involved in the “central dogma” of genetics? 95) ______
A) transcription and translation
B) transcription
C) DNA replication
D) DNA replication and translation
E) translation
96) Inducible operons 96) ______
A) usually require a repressor to be transcribed.
B) are active in the presence of a repressor.
C) are normally active.
D) are generally anabolic pathways.
E) usually require an activator to be transcribed.
97) Which of the following are considered to be frameshift mutations? 97) ______
A) insertions
B) deletions
C) inversions
D) both inversion and insertions
E) both deletions and insertions
98) If the codon AAA is changed to AAG, it still codes for the amino acid lysine; this is an example
of a
98) ______
A) silent mutation.
B) frameshift mutation.
C) missense mutation.
D) nonsense mutation.
E) gross mutation.
99) Which of the following causes mutations by creating thymine dimers? 99) ______
A) nucleotide analogs
B) ultraviolet light
C) nitrous acid
D) benzopyrene
E) gamma rays
100) DNA damage caused by ethidium bromide results in ________ mutations. 100) _____
A) insertion
B) deletion
C) substitution
D) both inversion and insertion
E) both insertion and deletion
101) Which of the following is a DNA repair enzyme activated by visible light? 101) _____
A) DNA ligase
B) bacteriocin
C) transposase
D) DNA photolyase
E) primase
102) The Ames test proves that a chemical is 102) _____
A) carcinogenic in Salmonella.
B) mutagenic in humans.
C) carcinogenic.
D) carcinogenic in humans.
E) mutagenic in Salmonella.
103) The horizontal transfer process known as transduction 103) _____
A) requires a cell to be “competent.”
B) requires a pilus.
C) requires a plasmid.
D) involves a virus.
E) involves a mutagen.
104) Frederick Griffith discovered 104) _____
A) the lac operon.
B) transposons.
C) conjugation.
D) DNA.
E) transformation.
105) In conjugation, F+ cells 105) _____
A) serve as recipient cells.
B) do not have conjugation pili.
C) can transfer DNA only to other F+ cells.
D) contain an F plasmid.
E) contain “jumping genes.”
106) Another term for the palindromic sequence found at the ends of transposons is a(n) 106) _____
A) inverted repeat.
B) bacteriophage.
C) transposase.
D) complex transposon.
E) insertion sequence.
107) Which of the following is characteristic of prokaryotic genomes but NOT eukaryotic genomes? 107) _____
A) circular chromosomes
B) typically consist of a few to several chromosomes
C) enclosed in a nuclear membrane
D) linear chromosomes
E) histones
108) Genes are active in a region of the eukaryotic chromosome called 108) _____
A) the plasmid.
B) the histone.
C) the nucleoid.
D) heterochromatin.
E) euchromatin.
109) The energy required for DNA replication comes from 109) _____
A) DNA ligase.
B) RNA primer.
C) the leading strand.
D) DNA polymerase.
E) triphosphate deoxyribonucleotides.
110) Which of the following is NOT involved in the regulation of the lac operon? 110) _____
A) a repressor protein
B) an inducer
C) an iRNA
D) cyclic AMP
E) glucose
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
Match the term with the appropriate genetic process:
A) Transcription
B) DNA replication
C) Translation
111) Promoter 111) ____________
112) Codon 112) ____________
113) Origin 113) ____________
114) DNA ligase 114) ____________
115) RNA polymerase 115) ____________
116) tRNA 116) ____________
117) fMet 117) ____________
118) Sigma factor 118) ____________
119) Semiconservative 119) ____________
120) P site 120) ____________
TRUE/FALSE. Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
121) Prokaryotic cells are diploid. 121) _____
122) Prokaryotes have one type of DNA polymerase, which is different from that of eukaryotes. 122) _____
123) The most common type of mutation is a point mutation. 123) _____
124) Most bacteria have a natural ability to take up DNA from their environment. 124) _____
125) The structure of DNA explains both its ability to encode genetic information and the way in
which it is copied during cell reproduction.
125) _____
126) DNA, which is negatively charged, wraps around positively charged histones as part of the
packaging of eukaryotic chromosomes.
126) _____
127) Bidirectional replication means that each strand of a DNA molecule is replicated in the opposite
direction from the other.
127) _____
128) The phenotype of an organism reflects only part of its genotype. 128) _____
129) In generalized transduction, viruses carry random DNA sequences from one cell to another. 129) _____
130) DNA polymerase III participates in the dark repair mechanism of DNA mutation repair. 130) _____
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
Correct answers may contain more than one word.
131) A(n) ________ is a specific sequence of nucleotides that codes for a protein or an RNA
molecule.
131) ____________
132) Loosely packed regions of a eukaryotic chromosome are called ________. 132) ____________
133) Transfer of DNA between cells by viruses is called ________. 133) ____________
134) A(n) ________ is a mutant organism that has different nutritional requirements from the
original wild-type organism.
134) ____________
135) The enzyme that removes supercoils generated during DNA replication is ________. 135) ____________
136) 5-bromouracil mimics the chemical structure of thymine, making it a(n) ________. 136) ____________
137) A mutation that changes the reading frame of a gene is called a ________ mutation. 137) ____________
138) The ________ of a transfer RNA molecule is complementary to a codon in a messenger
RNA molecule.
138) ____________
139) Transfer RNA molecules carrying amino acids initially bind to the ribosome at the
________.
139) ____________
140) dATP and dCTP are examples of ________, the building blocks of DNA molecules. 140) ____________
141) A(n) ________ is a set of prokaryotic genes that are regulated and transcribed as a unit. 141) ____________
142) The ________ is the DNA strand that is synthesized continuously during DNA
replication.
142) ____________
143) The ________ is the set of genes in the genome of an organism. 143) ____________
144) RNA polymerase initiates transcription by recognizing specific nucleotide sequences
called ________.
144) ____________
145) ________ RNA molecules contain both introns and exons. 145) ____________
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
146) Describe the basic similarities and differences between DNA replication and transcription.
147) Describe the various types of nucleic acids that are typically found in cells.
148) Discuss some of the consequences of the significant differences in transcription between prokaryotes and
eukaryotes.
149) Compare and contrast the lactose operon with the tryptophan operon.
150) A point mutation can be completely harmless, or it can result in the death of a cell or organism. Explain why
these types of mutations can have such varying effects.
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
151) Which of the following processes did NOT contribute to the development of genetic
engineering?
151) _____
A) chemiosmosis
B) transformation
C) conjugation
D) transcription
E) transduction
152) In the 20th century, scientists harnessed the natural metabolic reactions of bacteria to make
________ for the first time in an industrial setting.
152) _____
A) bread B) alcohol C) cheese D) soy sauce E) acetone
153) Which of the following items is NOT a part of the name of a restriction enzyme? 153) _____
A) the Gram reaction of the source bacterium
B) the strain of the source bacterium
C) the genus of the source bacterium
D) the specific epithet of the source bacterium
E) Roman numerals to indicate its order of discovery
154) The natural role of restriction enzymes in bacteria is 154) _____
A) to make conjugation more efficient.
B) to allow transposons to move to another place in the chromosome.
C) to protect the cell from invading phages.
D) to provide the cell with new phenotypes, such as antibiotic resistance.
E) to allow cells to accept foreign DNA.
155) A library of cloned sequences representing the expressed genes of an organism is known as a(n) 155) _____
A) microarray.
B) gene library.
C) cDNA library.
D) DNA fingerprint.
E) FISH library.
156) Which of the following restriction enzyme sites would produce blunt-ended fragments (the
arrow represents the cutting site of the enzyme)?
156) _____
A) C↓CGG
B) CCC↓GGG
C) G↓AATTC
D) G↓GATCC
E) A↓AGCTT
157) Put the following steps in the correct order needed to produce a recombinant vector containing a
human gene insert.
I. Introduce the recombinant plasmid into a bacterial cell.
II. Isolate the human gene and the vector DNA using restriction enzymes.
III. Ligate the DNA fragments to produce a recombinant plasmid.
IV. Grow bacterial cells on a medium containing a selective agent (such as an antibiotic).
157) _____
A) I, III, IV, II B) II, I, III, IV C) II, III, I, IV D) III, I, IV, II E) III, I, II, IV
158) Which of the following statements regarding vectors is FALSE? 158) _____
A) Cloning vectors frequently contain sequences necessary for expression of inserted
sequences.
B) Vectors are generally over 100,000 base pairs in size.
C) A useful vector contains multiple restriction sites for insertion of DNA.
D) Cloning vectors include a “marker” to facilitate identification of cells containing them.
E) Vectors are usually autonomously replicating DNA molecules.
159) Synthetic nucleic acids are useful 159) _____
A) as DNA probes, primers, and antisense RNAs.
B) as DNA probes.
C) as antisense RNAs.
D) as primers for PCR.
E) as DNA probes and antisense RNAs.
160) Which of the following would be an appropriate temperature for the first step of PCR? 160) _____
A) 72°C B) 65°C C) 94°C D) 37°C E) 55°C
161) Which of the following is essential in PCR? 161) _____
A) DNA polymerase
B) DNA primers
C) antisense RNAs
D) reverse transcriptase
E) both DNA primers and DNA polymerase
162) If a researcher used Escherichia coli DNA polymerase instead of Thermus aquaticus DNA poly meras
e in the
PCR
procedur
e, what
would be
the
result?
162) ____
_
A) PCR would not occur at all.
B) PCR would occur twice as fast as normal.
C) PCR would stop after one cycle.
D) PCR would occur more slowly than normal.
E) Many mistakes would occur.
163) Which of the following would be an appropriate sequence of temperatures for PCR? 163) _____
A) 94°C, 65°C, 72°C
B) 94°C, 55°C, 37°C
C) 72°C, 65°C, 94°C
D) 65°C, 72°C, 94°C
E) 94°C, 37°C, 55°C
164) If you started with a single DNA molecule, how many would you have at the end of six PCR
cycles?
164) _____
A) 4 B) 64 C) 32 D) 16 E) 100
165) In gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules move toward the ________ electrode because they have
an overall ________ charge.
165) _____
A) negative, negative
B) negative, positive
C) negative and positive, neutral
D) positive, negative
E) positive, positive
166) Which of the following procedures might be used to detect the presence of genetic sequences of a
virus in a patient’s blood?
166) _____
A) Southern blotting
B) xenotransplantation
C) genome mapping
D) electroporation
E) creation of a gene library
167) A northern blot differs from a Southern blot in 167) _____
A) the size of the genetic sequences involved.
B) the presence or absence of a nitrocellulose membrane.
C) the type of nucleic acid being isolated.
D) the number of genetic sequences detected.
E) the type of probe used.
168) Which of the following methods of inserting DNA into cells might be used on plant seeds? 168) _____
A) protoplast fusion, injection, and electroporation
B) protoplast fusion
C) electroporation
D) both injection and electroporation
E) injection
169) The DNA double helix can be separated into single strands using 169) _____
A) both heat and NaOH.
B) heat.
C) heat, NaOH, and reverse transcriptase.
D) NaOH.
E) reverse transcriptase.
170) The sequencing and analysis of an organism’s genetic information is called 170) _____
A) genomics.
B) protein synthesis.
C) PCR.
D) northern blotting.
E) gene therapy.
171) Which of the following devices is used for PCR? 171) _____
A) a DNA sequencer
B) a thermocycler
C) a gene gun
D) an electrophoresis chamber
E) a nucleic acid synthesis machine
172) DNA fingerprinting can be used 172) _____
A) to detect unculturable organisms.
B) in forensic investigations.
C) to generate cDNA clones.
D) for forensics and detection of unculturable organisms.
E) to generate cDNA clones and libraries.
173) The process of introducing animal organs into the human body is 173) _____
A) electrophoresis.
B) protoplast fusion.
C) recombinant DNA technology.
D) xenotransplantation.
E) biotechnology.
174) Subunit vaccines are safer than traditional vaccines because 174) _____
A) they are acellular and can be administered in food.
B) they are acellular and do not pose a risk for causing the disease.
C) they are acellular.
D) they do not pose a risk for causing the disease.
E) they are administered in food.
175) Which of the following recombinant tools is NOT used in DNA fingerprinting? 175) _____
A) reverse transcription
B) restriction enzyme digestion
C) gel electrophoresis
D) Neither PCR nor gel electrophoresis is used.
E) PCR
176) Transgenic organisms 176) _____
A) contain cells from other organisms.
B) have genomes that have been sequenced completely.
C) contain genetically engineered microbes.
D) are the same thing as clones.
E) contain genes from other organisms.
177) Which of the following microbes produces a protein that kills a variety of insect pests? 177) _____
A) Pseudomonas
B) Thermus aquaticus
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) Plasmodium falciparum
E) Bacillus thuringiensis
178) In vitro means 178) _____
A) “in life.”
B) “within glassware.”
C) “from a stranger.”
D) “in the cell.”
E) “within an organism.”
179) If all the following DNA fragments were analyzed on an electrophoresis gel, which one would
migrate farthest from the negative electrode?
179) _____
A) 250 base pairs
B) 5000 base pairs
C) 750 base pairs
D) 1000 base pairs
E) 2500 base pairs
180) Protoplasts are associated with which of the following? 180) _____
A) Southern blotting
B) electroporation
C) xenotransplants
D) gene therapy
E) PCR
181) An antigen is 181) _____
A) a foreign substance that stimulates immunity.
B) a genetic marker found in most plasmids.
C) a naturally occurring insecticide.
D) a substance used to make gels for DNA electrophoresis.
E) a molecule necessary for PCR.
182) An effective tool for screening a large number of genetic sequences at once is known as 182) _____
A) cDNA synthesis.
B) gel electrophoresis.
C) microarray.
D) restriction analysis.
E) FISH.
183) Which of the following is generally NOT considered an ethical issue regarding recombinant
DNA technology?
183) _____
A) answering basic research questions
B) unforeseen impact on the environment
C) screening of humans for genes that predispose them to disease
D) the modification of crop plants
E) the modification of animals to produce pharmaceuticals for humans
184) The first complete gene map was that of 184) _____
A) Escherichia coli.
B) Staphylococcus aureus.
C) Plasmodium falciparum.
D) Pseudomonas.
E) Haemophilus influenzae.
185) Which of the following microbes has been genetically engineered to contain a protein that helps
protect crops from freezing?
185) _____
A) Salmonella
B) Bacillus thuringiensis
C) Escherichia coli
D) Pseudomonas
E) Deinococcus radiodurans
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
Match the procedure with the appropriate tool or technique:
A) Nitrocellulose membranes
B) Reverse transcriptase
C) Synthetic nucleic acids and radioactive chemicals
D) DNA polymerase
E) Agarose
F) Single-stranded DNA and silicon chips
G) DNA ligase
H) Restriction enzymes
I) Compressed air and gold beads
J) Synthetic DNAs and fluorescent tags
186) Synthesis of cDNA 186) ____________
187) Probes 187) ____________
188) Cutting DNA molecules into fragments 188) ____________
189) Microarray 189) ____________
190) PCR 190) ____________
191) Southern blotting 191) ____________
192) FISH 192) ____________
193) Injecting DNA into cells 193) ____________
194) DNA electrophoresis 194) ____________
195) Connecting DNA fragments 195) ____________
TRUE/FALSE. Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
196) Gene therapy for human genetic diseases has not been successful yet. 196) _____
197) Reverse transcriptase synthesizes a DNA molecule from an RNA template. 197) _____
198) Large DNA molecules such as chromosomes are easier to work with than small molecules. 198) _____
199) Circular DNA molecules are generally more stable inside cells than linear molecules. 199) _____
200) The number of DNA molecules produced during PCR increases exponentially. 200) _____
201) Sticky-end fragments generated by EcoRI will hydrogen bond to any other sticky-end sequence. 201) _____
202) Nitrocellulose membranes used in Southern blotting are more delicate than agarose gels. 202) _____
203) Southern blotting is a technique that can be used to identify microbes that cannot be cultured. 203) _____
204) DNA fingerprinting produces a unique banding pattern of DNA fragments for comparison with
other DNA samples.
204) _____
205) A subunit vaccine is prepared by extensive manipulation of the genome of the pathogen. 205) _____
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
Correct answers may contain more than one word.
206) ________ is the use of microbes to make practical products such as vaccines or
hormones.
206) ____________
207) ________ is used to detect the presence of a particular DNA sequence. 207) ____________
208) Nucleic acid molecules used to deliver new genes to cells are called ________. 208) ____________
209) ________, first isolated from bacterial cells, cut DNA molecules at specific sites. 209) ____________
210) Short nucleic acid molecules used to locate complementary sequences in a larger
population of molecules are called ________.
210) ____________
211) A set of clones representing the entire genome of an organism is known as a(n)
________.
211) ____________
212) The ________ is a technique used to detect specific RNA molecules in a larger population
of molecules that has been separated by gel electrophoresis.
212) ____________
213) ________ are sequences that bind to mRNA and genes to effect their function. 213) ____________
214) The process of locating genes within the nucleic acid of an organism is called ________. 214) ____________
215) ________ involves the insertion of foreign DNA directly into a cell’s nucleus using a
glass micropipet.
215) ____________
216) ________ can be used to detect mutant genes associated with genetic diseases in indi viduals before